Apostolic But Not Believing Jesus is The Father?

[Sean]

I would like to introduce the thought that there are 2 wills involved, between The Father and Jesus'.
Jesus had a will that tried to get out of doing the perfect will of the Father....Mark 14:36 And he said, Abba, Father, all things are possible unto thee; take away this cup from me: nevertheless not what I will, but what thou wilt.

Luke 22:42 Saying, Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done.



Is it possible that Jesus had to die to shed his "own" will?

Was he perfectly one with the will of the Father when He tried to get out of the crucifixion?

Is it possible that he could only become PERFECTLY ONE with God, after the resurrection?

Will we finally become perfectly one with each other and God in eternity, only after we are resurrected and shed our wills?

TRUE and COMPLETE oneness with God may only be doable in eternity for ANY human being.

[jfrog]

Originally Posted by Sean

I would like to introduce the thought that there are 2 wills involved, between The Father and Jesus'.
Jesus had a will that tried to get out of doing the perfect will of the Father....Mark 14:36 And he said, Abba, Father, all things are possible unto thee; take away this cup from me: nevertheless not what I will, but what thou wilt.

Luke 22:42 Saying, Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done.



Is it possible that Jesus had to die to shed his "own" will?

Was he perfectly one with the will of the Father when He tried to get out of the crucifixion?

Is it possible that he could only become PERFECTLY ONE with God, after the resurrection?

Will we finally become perfectly one with each other and God in eternity, only after we are resurrected and shed our wills?

TRUE and COMPLETE oneness with God may only be doable in eternity for ANY human being.

No one is saying there aren't two minds or wills or whatever present in the interactions between the Father and Jesus.

[Michael The Disciple]

Sean

I agree with Bernard that the Man, Jesus did not preexist before the virgin birth, but only in the mind/will of God as a plan as he states on page 182..

Hey Bro we dont want to seem to be ganging up on a brother. But some things need to be said that we would speak the same thing.

a. No one that I know teaches that Jesus pre existed as a man. No Oneness. No Trins. So no need to fight a doctrine that does not exist.

b. That Jesus pre existed as the Creator of the Universe was always THE PRIMARY TEACHING of the original modern Oneness Movement in accordance with the teachings of the foundation apostles. This is sufficient.

He was in the world and the world was MADE BY HIM and the world knew him not. John 1:10

When Jesus pre existed as YHWH the Eternal Father he created everything.

Yes theres more to the story how the incarnation came about. But Bro. just believe this for now its a great place to start.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Sean

Really Prax???
Shall and will
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Shall and will are two of the English modal verbs. They have various uses, including the expression of propositions about the future, in what is usually referred to as the future tense of English.






LEO: Literacy Education Online
Summary of Verb Tenses

Future Tense

Future tense expresses an action or situation that will occur in the future. This tense is formed by using will/shall with the simple form of the verb.





Shall

"Shall" is used to indicate future action. It is most commonly used in sentences with "I" or "we," and is often found in suggestions, such as "Shall we go?" "Shall" is also frequently used in promises or voluntary actions. In formal English, the use of "shall" to describe future events often expresses inevitability or predestination. "Shall" is much more commonly heard in British English than in American English; Americans prefer to use other forms, although they do sometimes use "shall" in suggestions or formalized language.

Yes...I don't need to quote the dictionary again

But I will repeat what I said before. This is a prophecy. It's a prophecy of a future event.

And you are working with one translation without the benefit of the Hebrew

Here is another translation. The JPS is a Jewish translation

Isa 9:6 (9:5) For a child is born unto us, a son is given unto us; and the government is upon his shoulder; and his name is called Pele- joez-el-gibbor-Abi-ad-sar-shalom;

Your "Shall" may not be a "Shall" and even if it was "Shall" does not mean "some 30 years later"

Some others

(BBE) For to us a child has come, to us a son is given; and the government has been placed in his hands; and he has been named Wise Guide, Strong God, Father for ever, Prince of Peace.

In fact why can't this be understood as

For unto us a child is to be born, unto us a son is to be given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.?

Because we know this is a prophecy

More

(LITV) For a Child is born; to us a Son is given; and the government is on His shoulder; and His name is called Wonderful, Counselor, The Mighty God, The Everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

These are my questions

Is He who died the same He who Eternally existed as God?

Originally Posted by Sean

No, God does not die.

You see? Sean does not believe He who is God and He who died are the same Person. They are not the same He.

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Or is HE who died someone OTHER than God?

Originally Posted by Sean

Yes, the Man, Christ Jesus.

Again this proves what I have been saying all along Sean. It's nothing personal but you have 2 Persons. God is someone OTHER than the Son. That's two different persons and THAT, until the resurrection, is identical to Unitaranism

What you have afterward is closer to Binitarianism...except your second Divine person became God

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Is He who was tempted the same HE who created everything as God?

Originally Posted by Sean

Yes, the Father inside of Jesus was tempted

So....God can be tempted? Just because he was inside Jesus?

Originally Posted by Prax

Or is He who was tempted someone OTHER than He who created everything

Originally Posted by Sean

Jesus was tempted as a Man, but The Father inside of him was tempted along with him. That is why Jesus said.."thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God"....

If Jesus was a Devine/Man as you believe, then Satan not only Tempted God, but he KILLED God.

Yes. So once again we have confirmed what I have said all along. You believe in 2 persons. One is God and the other is not...until AFTER the resurrection when He became God.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Sean

This implies that God cannot fall into sin(evil) temptation Mike...just look at this...[/COLOR]Luke 4:12 And Jesus answering said unto him, It is said, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God......If Satan was not trying to tempt God, then why did Jesus say that?


Howabout this....Ps 78....Yet they tempted and provoked the most high God, and kept not his testimonies:

Exodus 17:7 And he called the name of the place Massah, and Meribah, because of the chiding of the children of Israel, and because they tempted the LORD, saying, Is the LORD among us, or not?

Heb 3:8 Harden not your hearts, as in the provocation, in the day of temptation in the wilderness:

9 When your fathers tempted me, proved me, and saw my works forty years.




God cannot be tempted? or God cannot FALL into temptation? Which might it be?

You are confusing Satan trying to Tempt God with God actually being tempted

Jas 1:13 Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God," for God cannot be tempted with evil, and he himself tempts no one.

They tested God, not Tempted God to do evil and even if they attempted to Tempt God that again is not the same thing as God BEING Tempted

You can ask me a question but that does not mean I will answer

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Sean

Look folks, I have been reading Bernards book and I think we are all talking about the same thing...

I believe that The Spirit of Jesus is the Father of the O.T.

The Spirit of the Father was indwelling Jesus

I agree with Bernard that the Man, Jesus did not preexist before the virgin birth, but only in the mind/will of God as a plan as he states on page 182...... https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=...78677474,d.cGU

Bernard says that Jesus had a human spirit also...I agree. etc. etc.



My only real beef is...Was Jesus "born" God, or did he "ascend" to be God?

Bernard does NOT teach the Son is someone other than God nor that He became God

Consider these statements by Bernard and others

From David Bernard, the Oneness of the Godhead, chapter 5 "The Son of God"

He has two natures.
"From the Bible we see that Jesus Christ had two distinct natures in a way that no other human being has ever had"

"Son of God may refer solely to the human nature or it may refer to God manifested in flesh - that is, deity in the human nature."

"Man could not see the invisible God, so God made an exact likeness of Himself in flesh, impressed His very nature in flesh, came Himself in flesh, so that man could see and know Him."

"As stated above, "Son" does not always refer to the humanity alone but to the deity and humanity together as they exist in the one person of Christ"

"What is the significance of the title "Son of God"? It emphasizes the divine nature of Jesus"

"When Peter confessed that Jesus was "the Christ, the Son of the living God," he recognized the Messianic role and deity of Jesus (Matthew 16:16). The Jews understood what Jesus meant when He called Himself the Son of God and when He called God His Father, for they tried to kill Him for claiming to be God (John 5:18; 10:33). In short, the title "Son of God" recognizes the humanity while calling attention to the deity of Jesus. It means God has manifested Himself in flesh."

"These verses describe the eternal Spirit that was in the Son - the deity that was later incarnated as the Son - as the Creator."

Talmadge French "The Oneness"

Page 2 "Jesus, the Son, was 'the Great God' come as man. He did not reveal a tri-personal, shared Godhead or use the new words "Trinity" or "Persons". As perfect man Jesus was the visible, exact expression of God's person-- the supreme reaffirmation of the Oneness of God.

page 3 "The Manifestation of God as Father,Son and Spirit
God is the self-existent, indivisible One (here he quotes hebrew text, as Qal derivative, "The absolute One"). He has manifested Himself simultaneously, not successively, as Father in the Old Testament, Son in the New Testament (as both God and man) and Spirit in the indwelling of believers. The One God is revealed as Creator, Redeemer, and Regenerater. One and the same God is manifest, revealed, or made known, in Creation, in Incarnation, and in Pentecost.

Page 4 "Jesus was God in the form of man, possessing all the attributes of the One God (Gen 1:1; 1cor 8:6; Gen 1:
27; Jn 1:4; 3:15; Is 43:25; Mk 2:5-7)

Ross Drysdale
http://mikeblume.com/drysd8a.htm
The Father has omnipresence, the Son does also (John 3:13).
The Father has life in Himself, the Son does also (John 5:26).
The Father knows all things, the Son does also (John 21:17).
The Father has all power, the Son does also (Matthew 28:18).
The Father has divine nature, the Son does also (Titus 2:13).

Every aspect of His deity is the result of the incarnation of the Father in his flesh


From "UPCI Positional Papers" http://www.evidentialfaith.com/paper...20-%20UPCI.pdf
“Manifest in the flesh” means much more than “inhabiting flesh.” The use of the word
“bodily” in Colossians 2:9 eliminates the idea of God merely dwelling in a fleshly container.

Rather, all the fullness dwelt “in him” and “in him ... bodily.”

“In him” is a reference to Christ in all the scriptural significance of the title and person. For this reason we should avoid terminology that does not fit scriptural usage or reflect the full meaning.

For example, it is erroneous to say that God dwells in flesh like water in a glass. The glass is merely a container, but when God came in flesh, deity and humanity were joined together in the one person of Jesus Christ.

Christ was the Word become flesh (John 1:14). He was “conceived” by a virgin (Luke 1:31; 2:21),gestated in her womb (Luke 2:5-6), and born of her (Luke 1:35; 2:7; Matthew 1:16-25).

Talmadge French
"The very essence of Oneness Pentecostal theology and experience is, in fact, "God in Christ," or God as man. To know Christ is to know God." ~Talmadge French. M.A. (Our God Is One, pg. 183)

Jason Dulle
The Bible is clear that Jesus, the Son of God, prayed to the Father. By portraying the Son as praying to the Father the Bible is making a distinction between the Father and Son The Bible makes a distinction between the Father and Son hundreds of times, so this should be no surprise. We cannot and should not deny these distinctions. To recognize and affirm them in not an affirmation of Trinitarianism, for both Trinitarians and Oneness believers alike confess these distinctions, but understand their nature and origin differently. ~Jason Dulle


Robert Sabin
Robert Sabin...
That is God's envisaging of what He Himself would be. God made the world, but He did not make it without a thought in His mind that someday He would come into the world, take up humanity, be born of a woman, be made of a woman and be made under the law. God determined that.

The God that made Adam was born, underwent generation and came into this world becoming a part of the creation. The uncreated one became a creature so that we created ones, could become eternal. Jesus came forth from the tomb alive! The angel said, Why seek ye the living among the dead? He is not here, but is risen Luke 24:5. The Lord said, "I am alive forevermore" (Revelation 1:18).
http://www.whoisjesus.com/creator.html

He is simply God, the God of the Bible, who manifest himself to creation as a man.

God is a person, an individual, an identity, a unique being. Scripture does not support the statement that within God's being are three persons. God is one individual, one person who was imaged forth on earth as Jesus Christ. Hebrews 1:3 speaks of God and man, a visible image of an invisible God. It does not put forth the idea of a plurality of persons in the Godhead, nor does any other scripture.
http://www.whoisjesus.com/manJesus.html

So that God could have blood, so that God could have a brow, so that God could have a tongue that would thirst, so that God could become identified with human sorrow, so that God could come into the arena, so that God could take part in the salvation of mankind, God became flesh.

There is a reason why we know that God will not tire of this world. God became part of this world. God became part of this creation.

God came forth from a virgin. He joined the human race. It was not just temporary. It was not in some way that He could someday cast aside the robes of humanity. No, our Lord lived here. He became fused to humanity. God became a man, and He will be a man forevermore.
http://www.whoisjesus.com/deputy.html

Oneness view of God:
Some of the passages that speak of Jesus as the Creator
also refer to Him as the Son. (See Colossians 1:13;
Hebrews 1:8.) Consequently, trinitarians maintain that an
eternal Son co-created the world alongside a distinct person
called the Father. But these passages can be understood
as simply stating that the One who later became
the Son created the world. For example, when we say,
“President Lincoln was born in Kentucky,” we do not
mean that he was president at that time.

Daniel Segraves
http://danielsegraves.blogspot.com/2...1_archive.html
Since, according to the grammar of Matthew 28:19, there is but one name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, that means there is but one person – one God – who is the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit. The God that we know as the Son is the same God that we know as the Father and the same God that we know as the Holy Spirit. Sharp’s rule does not require a fragmentation of God into three radically distinct persons.

The Son is and will always be subject to God the Father.
http://danielsegraves.blogspot.com/2...1_archive.html
Human nature is, by definition, ontologically subordinate to God. Christ is one integrated person who is both divine and human. In order for His humanity to be meaningful, it was necessary for Christ to voluntarily limit Himself within the parameters of that which is essentially human. All references to the subjection of Christ to God, whether past, present, or future, depend upon Christ’s solidarity with the human race.

The use of “Christ” emphasizes the Incarnation. In verse 28 Christ is referred to as the “Son.” The identification of the Son as “Lord” calls attention to His deity as Yahweh. To identify the Son as Christ emphasizes His humanity and the fact that He is the anointed One. Paul’s primary Christological focus in I Corinthians is on the Son as Messiah. Except for four references (I Corinthians 5:5; 6:11; 11:23; 12:3), Paul identifies the Son as Christ. In I Corinthians the Son is identified as “Christ” forty-four times, as “Lord Jesus Christ” ten times, as “Jesus Christ” four times, as “Christ Jesus” four times, as “Jesus Christ our Lord” three times, and as “Christ Jesus our Lord” once.

Daniel Segraves “Reading Between the Lines” pg 24
Jesus is Yahweh
The final example of intertextuality relating to Genesis 1:1 underscores this idea. In Hebrews 1:10, we find these words: “And: You LORD, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the work of Your hands.” As we examine the context, the first thing we notice about this Scripture is that these words are spoken to the Son, our Lord Jesus Christ. Hebrews 1:8-9 read, “But to the Son He says: ‘Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; therefore God, Your God, has anointed You with the oil of gladness more than Your companions.’” Hebrews 1:10 begins with the word “and,” connecting the words to follow with the previous words, continuing with that which was spoken to the Son. Hebrews 1:8, which identifies the Son as God by means of a quote from Psalm 45:6, indicates the deity of Jesus; Hebrews 1:9, which identifies the Son as the Messiah by virtue of His anointing, indicates the humanity of Jesus. It is only in His humanity that Jesus has “companions,” or peers. But then, in Hebrews 1:10, the Son is identified as Yahweh, the covenant name by which God revealed Himself to Moses in Exodus 6:3.

Since it is Yahweh who is addressed in Psalm 102, as indicated in verse 1, the Septuagint translates verse 25 as, “In the beginning thou, O Lord, didst lay the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands.” Thus, the writer of Hebrews identifies the Son as Yahweh, the Creator. By its connection with Psalm 102, and by the connection of Psalm 102 with Genesis 1:1, the Book of Hebrews, like the Gospel of John and the letter of I John, informs us that the singular God who created the heavens and the earth is none other than Jesus Christ. He is the Word, the Word of Life, the very life of the Father, manifested in genuine, authentic human existence.

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

You see? Sean does not believe He who is God and He who died are the same Person. They are not the same He.




Again this proves what I have been saying all along Sean. It's nothing personal but you have 2 Persons. God is someone OTHER than the Son. That's two different persons and THAT, until the resurrection, is identical to Unitaranism

What you have afterward is closer to Binitarianism...except your second Divine person became God




So....God can be tempted? Just because he was inside Jesus?




Yes. So once again we have confirmed what I have said all along. You believe in 2 persons. One is God and the other is not...until AFTER the resurrection when He became God.

Prax, you can find a very small idea from many concepts in the religious world in ANY of our belief systems today. Most beliefs systems in the world are founded on "partial" truth.
The Catholic Church believes that Jesus is God. Do you believe that Jesus is God?
You and the pope both agree together that Jesus is God, you both believe was born, Jesus lived on earth. Jesus did miracles, Jesus was our sacrifice and Jesus ascended into heaven.

Prax, you greatly resemble a Catholic to me.

Ridiculous???

Thats how you sound when you dont allow a man to have an independent point of view when his view has a minor similarity with anothers' stated belief.

Bottom line, if I call you a Catholic, even though you have some minor similarities,, I am Lying.

If you assign to me some other religious name, even though we have some minor similarities, you are Lying.

Prax, try not to lie about me, its a sin....Colossians 3:9-10

9 Lie not one to another, seeing that ye have put off the old man with his deeds;

10 And have put on the new man, which is renewed in knowledge after the image of him that created him

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

You are confusing Satan trying to Tempt God with God actually being tempted

Jas 1:13 Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God," for God cannot be tempted with evil, and he himself tempts no one.

They tested God, not Tempted God to do evil and even if they attempted to Tempt God that again is not the same thing as God BEING Tempted

Then why did God respond to their tempting, by tempting him to wipe them out and start over with Moses. Moses had to talk the Lord out of it.(Calm Him down)...sounds like a temptation to respond violently against his people right? They got Him mad right?
If a man follows you though the mall and says things to upset you in front of your family, are you tempted to hit him in your anger, or tested to hit him in your anger?


You can ask me a question but that does not mean I will answer

Do you think that we cannot move God to do something out of anger here? Just defy Him and you will find out. However, whatever the Lord does out of ANGER in response to our defiance...it is not a sin. God CANNOT be tempted with EVIL or to do what He considers evil.

Neither will He tempt any man with EVIL.

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Bernard does NOT teach the Son is someone other than God nor that He became God

Consider these statements by Bernard and others

From David Bernard, the Oneness of the Godhead, chapter 5 "The Son of God"

He has two natures.
"From the Bible we see that Jesus Christ had two distinct natures in a way that no other human being has ever had"

"Son of God may refer solely to the human nature or it may refer to God manifested in flesh - that is, deity in the human nature."

"Man could not see the invisible God, so God made an exact likeness of Himself in flesh, impressed His very nature in flesh, came Himself in flesh, so that man could see and know Him."

"As stated above, "Son" does not always refer to the humanity alone but to the deity and humanity together as they exist in the one person of Christ"

"What is the significance of the title "Son of God"? It emphasizes the divine nature of Jesus"

"When Peter confessed that Jesus was "the Christ, the Son of the living God," he recognized the Messianic role and deity of Jesus (Matthew 16:16). The Jews understood what Jesus meant when He called Himself the Son of God and when He called God His Father, for they tried to kill Him for claiming to be God (John 5:18; 10:33). In short, the title "Son of God" recognizes the humanity while calling attention to the deity of Jesus. It means God has manifested Himself in flesh."

"These verses describe the eternal Spirit that was in the Son - the deity that was later incarnated as the Son - as the Creator."

Talmadge French "The Oneness"

Page 2 "Jesus, the Son, was 'the Great God' come as man. He did not reveal a tri-personal, shared Godhead or use the new words "Trinity" or "Persons". As perfect man Jesus was the visible, exact expression of God's person-- the supreme reaffirmation of the Oneness of God.

page 3 "The Manifestation of God as Father,Son and Spirit
God is the self-existent, indivisible One (here he quotes hebrew text, as Qal derivative, "The absolute One"). He has manifested Himself simultaneously, not successively, as Father in the Old Testament, Son in the New Testament (as both God and man) and Spirit in the indwelling of believers. The One God is revealed as Creator, Redeemer, and Regenerater. One and the same God is manifest, revealed, or made known, in Creation, in Incarnation, and in Pentecost.

Page 4 "Jesus was God in the form of man, possessing all the attributes of the One God (Gen 1:1; 1cor 8:6; Gen 1:
27; Jn 1:4; 3:15; Is 43:25; Mk 2:5-7)

Ross Drysdale
http://mikeblume.com/drysd8a.htm
The Father has omnipresence, the Son does also (John 3:13).
The Father has life in Himself, the Son does also (John 5:26).
The Father knows all things, the Son does also (John 21:17).
The Father has all power, the Son does also (Matthew 28:18).
The Father has divine nature, the Son does also (Titus 2:13).

Every aspect of His deity is the result of the incarnation of the Father in his flesh


From "UPCI Positional Papers" http://www.evidentialfaith.com/paper...20-%20UPCI.pdf
“Manifest in the flesh” means much more than “inhabiting flesh.” The use of the word
“bodily” in Colossians 2:9 eliminates the idea of God merely dwelling in a fleshly container.

Rather, all the fullness dwelt “in him” and “in him ... bodily.”

“In him” is a reference to Christ in all the scriptural significance of the title and person. For this reason we should avoid terminology that does not fit scriptural usage or reflect the full meaning.

For example, it is erroneous to say that God dwells in flesh like water in a glass. The glass is merely a container, but when God came in flesh, deity and humanity were joined together in the one person of Jesus Christ.

Christ was the Word become flesh (John 1:14). He was “conceived” by a virgin (Luke 1:31; 2:21),gestated in her womb (Luke 2:5-6), and born of her (Luke 1:35; 2:7; Matthew 1:16-25).

Talmadge French
"The very essence of Oneness Pentecostal theology and experience is, in fact, "God in Christ," or God as man. To know Christ is to know God." ~Talmadge French. M.A. (Our God Is One, pg. 183)

Jason Dulle
The Bible is clear that Jesus, the Son of God, prayed to the Father. By portraying the Son as praying to the Father the Bible is making a distinction between the Father and Son The Bible makes a distinction between the Father and Son hundreds of times, so this should be no surprise. We cannot and should not deny these distinctions. To recognize and affirm them in not an affirmation of Trinitarianism, for both Trinitarians and Oneness believers alike confess these distinctions, but understand their nature and origin differently. ~Jason Dulle


Robert Sabin
Robert Sabin...
That is God's envisaging of what He Himself would be. God made the world, but He did not make it without a thought in His mind that someday He would come into the world, take up humanity, be born of a woman, be made of a woman and be made under the law. God determined that.

The God that made Adam was born, underwent generation and came into this world becoming a part of the creation. The uncreated one became a creature so that we created ones, could become eternal. Jesus came forth from the tomb alive! The angel said, Why seek ye the living among the dead? He is not here, but is risen Luke 24:5. The Lord said, "I am alive forevermore" (Revelation 1:18).
http://www.whoisjesus.com/creator.html

He is simply God, the God of the Bible, who manifest himself to creation as a man.

God is a person, an individual, an identity, a unique being. Scripture does not support the statement that within God's being are three persons. God is one individual, one person who was imaged forth on earth as Jesus Christ. Hebrews 1:3 speaks of God and man, a visible image of an invisible God. It does not put forth the idea of a plurality of persons in the Godhead, nor does any other scripture.
http://www.whoisjesus.com/manJesus.html

So that God could have blood, so that God could have a brow, so that God could have a tongue that would thirst, so that God could become identified with human sorrow, so that God could come into the arena, so that God could take part in the salvation of mankind, God became flesh.

There is a reason why we know that God will not tire of this world. God became part of this world. God became part of this creation.

God came forth from a virgin. He joined the human race. It was not just temporary. It was not in some way that He could someday cast aside the robes of humanity. No, our Lord lived here. He became fused to humanity. God became a man, and He will be a man forevermore.
http://www.whoisjesus.com/deputy.html

Oneness view of God:
Some of the passages that speak of Jesus as the Creator
also refer to Him as the Son. (See Colossians 1:13;
Hebrews 1:8.) Consequently, trinitarians maintain that an
eternal Son co-created the world alongside a distinct person
called the Father. But these passages can be understood
as simply stating that the One who later became
the Son created the world. For example, when we say,
“President Lincoln was born in Kentucky,” we do not
mean that he was president at that time.

Daniel Segraves
http://danielsegraves.blogspot.com/2...1_archive.html
Since, according to the grammar of Matthew 28:19, there is but one name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, that means there is but one person – one God – who is the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit. The God that we know as the Son is the same God that we know as the Father and the same God that we know as the Holy Spirit. Sharp’s rule does not require a fragmentation of God into three radically distinct persons.

The Son is and will always be subject to God the Father.
http://danielsegraves.blogspot.com/2...1_archive.html
Human nature is, by definition, ontologically subordinate to God. Christ is one integrated person who is both divine and human. In order for His humanity to be meaningful, it was necessary for Christ to voluntarily limit Himself within the parameters of that which is essentially human. All references to the subjection of Christ to God, whether past, present, or future, depend upon Christ’s solidarity with the human race.

The use of “Christ” emphasizes the Incarnation. In verse 28 Christ is referred to as the “Son.” The identification of the Son as “Lord” calls attention to His deity as Yahweh. To identify the Son as Christ emphasizes His humanity and the fact that He is the anointed One. Paul’s primary Christological focus in I Corinthians is on the Son as Messiah. Except for four references (I Corinthians 5:5; 6:11; 11:23; 12:3), Paul identifies the Son as Christ. In I Corinthians the Son is identified as “Christ” forty-four times, as “Lord Jesus Christ” ten times, as “Jesus Christ” four times, as “Christ Jesus” four times, as “Jesus Christ our Lord” three times, and as “Christ Jesus our Lord” once.

Daniel Segraves “Reading Between the Lines” pg 24
Jesus is Yahweh
The final example of intertextuality relating to Genesis 1:1 underscores this idea. In Hebrews 1:10, we find these words: “And: You LORD, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the work of Your hands.” As we examine the context, the first thing we notice about this Scripture is that these words are spoken to the Son, our Lord Jesus Christ. Hebrews 1:8-9 read, “But to the Son He says: ‘Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; therefore God, Your God, has anointed You with the oil of gladness more than Your companions.’” Hebrews 1:10 begins with the word “and,” connecting the words to follow with the previous words, continuing with that which was spoken to the Son. Hebrews 1:8, which identifies the Son as God by means of a quote from Psalm 45:6, indicates the deity of Jesus; Hebrews 1:9, which identifies the Son as the Messiah by virtue of His anointing, indicates the humanity of Jesus. It is only in His humanity that Jesus has “companions,” or peers. But then, in Hebrews 1:10, the Son is identified as Yahweh, the covenant name by which God revealed Himself to Moses in Exodus 6:3.

Since it is Yahweh who is addressed in Psalm 102, as indicated in verse 1, the Septuagint translates verse 25 as, “In the beginning thou, O Lord, didst lay the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands.” Thus, the writer of Hebrews identifies the Son as Yahweh, the Creator. By its connection with Psalm 102, and by the connection of Psalm 102 with Genesis 1:1, the Book of Hebrews, like the Gospel of John and the letter of I John, informs us that the singular God who created the heavens and the earth is none other than Jesus Christ. He is the Word, the Word of Life, the very life of the Father, manifested in genuine, authentic human existence.

I believe in these statements in their entirety, thanks. Good stuff.