Israel and their corn

[mfblume]

the KJV shouldn't have used easter in Acts . bad mistake.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by mfblume

the KJV shouldn't have used easter in Acts . bad mistake.

Funny how nobody was confused until the recent generation of "new Bible publishers" came along. Not saying that "Easter" is the best translation, but keep in mind "Passover" was a word invented by Tyndale only a relatively short time prior to 1611. Easter was the term English speakers used to refer to what everyone else called Pascha.

[Esaias]

Which once again shows the KJV to be correct English, and "the problem" being people's lack of knowledge of their own language.

[Esaias]

http://www.easterau.com

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Funny how nobody was confused until the recent generation of "new Bible publishers" came along. Not saying that "Easter" is the best translation, but keep in mind "Passover" was a word invented by Tyndale only a relatively short time prior to 1611. Easter was the term English speakers used to refer to what everyone else called Pascha.

How in the world did EASTER come into being, if that be the case? What's the etymology? And why trans;ate it as EASTER when the word PASSOVER was used in the New Testament elsewhere?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by mfblume

How in the world did EASTER come into being, if that be the case? What's the etymology? And why trans;ate it as EASTER when the word PASSOVER was used in the New Testament elsewhere?

The link I gave goes into DETAIL about the etymology. But short story, as I mentioned, Tyndale invented the word "Passover" about 80 years before the KJV was translated. Pesach was universally known in English as "Ester" (later variation: Easter), as in the older German Oster from which it came. There WAS no other term in English until Tyndale invented the word Passover.

The translators used Passover for every reference to pre-Resurrection Pesach, and used Easter in the Acts passage because it was a post a resurrection Pesach.

Like I said, it was not the BEST translation, but the reasoning (considering the meaning of the term at the time) is valid.

Read the link, it goes in depth into the term's origin and usage.

[FlamingZword]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Which once again shows the KJV to be correct English, and "the problem" being people's lack of knowledge of their own language.

If the problem is people's lack of knowledge of their own language, then it is up to us as evangelists of God's word to either bring the message down to their level of education or to elevate their level of education.

Perhaps we need to start people with a children's bible not a KJV and then work them up to the KJV reading level.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by FlamingZword

If the problem is people's lack of knowledge of their own language, then it is up to us as evangelists of God's word to either bring the message down to their level of education or to elevate their level of education.

Perhaps we need to start people with a children's bible not a KJV and then work them up to the KJV reading level.

Just explain as you go. People are often uneducated, not dumb. They catch on quick in the right environment.

[berkeley]

Originally Posted by FlamingZword

If the problem is people's lack of knowledge of their own language, then it is up to us as evangelists of God's word to either bring the message down to their level of education or to elevate their level of education.

Perhaps we need to start people with a children's bible not a KJV and then work them up to the KJV reading level.

Sounds good. Give them the same stuff given to the preschool class.

Meanwhile, in Islam...

[good samaritan]

John 12:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except a corn of wheat fall into the ground and die, it abideth alone:but if it die, it bringeth forth much fruit. 25 He that loveth his life shall lose it; and he that hateth his life in this world shall keep it unto life eternal.

NIV says kernel of wheat.