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[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Aquila

First, we're not under the Law. The Law is an all or nothing proposition.

What does that mean? Does that mean women can indeed wear that which pertains to a man, and that men can indeed wear a woman's garment? Is that what you are saying?

Second, it says, "pertaineth to a man" vs. ""pertaineth to a woman". I'm Scottish. Kilts pertain to a man, even though some could argue style and design is too similar to that of a skirt. Ladies Jordache, with the pretty little punk sequins on the butt, pertains to a woman, even if the design is similar to men's pants.

Men don't wear ladies jeans. Why? We inherently know they belong to a woman.

Who decides what pertains to a man or a woman? They now make rompers for men, called a "romphim". They also make pantyhose for men now, dresses and nightgowns even, all for men.

Are those things that "pertain to a man"?

If surrounding culture alone dictates these things, how can culture ever be wrong? Can it? Is culture always right?

Have you tried telling the trans crowd "men don't wear ladies jeans because they know they belong to a woman"? There is a whole generation being taught (by liberal democrats) that NOTHING "belongs" to any gender, gender is a social construct developed by evil white Christian men to keep everyone enslaved. What message do you have for these people?