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There is no way a power mad heathen king's military tents in conquered Jerusalem equate to "the temple (naos) of God". Especially when "the temple (naos) of God" is a special phrase used by Paul exclusively for the church
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So this word can ONLY be used for the Church? Its definition by Strongs is "to dwell".
a fane
shrine
temple
Nothing about the word makes it exclusive to the Church.
Mark 14:58
58We heard him say, I will destroy this
temple that is made with hands, and within three days I will build another made without hands.
Mark 15:29
29And they that passed by railed on him, wagging their heads, and saying, Ah, thou that destroyest the
temple, and buildest it in three days, 30Save thyself, and come down from the cross.
Mark 15:38
38And the veil of the
temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom.
Luke 1:9
9According to the custom of the priest's office, his lot was to burn incense when he went into the
temple of the Lord.
Temple in these 4 verses is the same as Paul used in
2 Thess 2:4. There are more verses where the word is not used for the Church but this should suffice.
So the word temple as used both by Jesus and Paul and others means "to dwell".
Its a dwelling place. In context a dwelling place for God. The man of sin sits in the temple of God SHEWING HIMSELF....THAT...HE...IS GOD.
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