Costeon said:
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Tyndale knew Greek, but that doesn't mean he was infallible and could never be inaccurate. However, please see the following link. It is to a site that says it's Tyndale's NT: https://www.biblestudytools.com/tyn/john/1.html. It is different from the version you linked to and agrees will all other English translations.
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Yes I looked at it. Why conflicting versions of the same version?
I also found the Coverdale version which followed the Tyndale version at this site.
https://www.studylight.org/bible/mcb/john/1.html
John 1:1
1 In the begynnynge was the worde, and the worde was with God, and
God was ye worde.
Costeon, please dont take my questioning as being combative. I'm just trying to understand. I have noticed the same thing with Martin Luthers Bible if I am reading this right.
Luthers Bible
John 1:1
1 Im Anfang war das Wort, und das Wort war bei Gott, und Gott war das Wort.
Of course this would be German but closer to the Greek than the English?
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