Polygamy in the Bible

[TK Burk]

Originally Posted by Michael Phelps

I've been waiting for the answer too........the only one I've gotten so far is that Jesus has many wives....multi membered bride.

And NO SCRIPTURE to back it up....

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Show me where in the New Testament were people had MORE THAN ONE WIFE?

We understand it to be so by the writing of Paul concerning the Bishop should limit himself to ONE WIFE

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by LUKE2447

Have you read his previous posts? Also because he says it was in the church in SOME form does not mean it was not due to many new converts in multiple marriages. Also his point of "ONE" is not necessarily true that was my other point! Also I was responding to BENI as well which did not show up in the included text for some reason.

I wonder why?

[TK Burk]

Originally Posted by erikwebster

The Epistles were written to address specific situations in the churches they were sent to typically.

Since Paul told them that leadership could only have one wife deductive logic would tell you he didn't waste good ink and parchment without a reason dealing with that exact issue.

Hence it was present in the early church in some form.

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

We understand it to be so by the writing of Paul concerning the Bishop should limit himself to ONE WIFE

Yep, and the Church was made up of former heathen gentiles. Some of Paul's writing to the Church of Corinth dealt with a convert living with his father's wife. That was in the church also. But I doubt it would be suggested that it was biblical nor common practice.

The early Church had to weed out sin issues that would hinder men and women from maturing into Christlikeness. The Epistles focused on that. Paul saying that a minister should have only "one wife" in no way suggests there was a common practice of polygamy in the Church. Rather just the opposite; he is making it clear that such practice is against God's will.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

We understand it to be so by the writing of Paul concerning the Bishop should limit himself to ONE WIFE

Get out of town! You guys have been going pages such vague evidence?

A bishop should be the husband of one wife?

Does your flawed cult hermeneutic work when applied to other similar verses?

1Ti 5:9

"Let not a widow be taken into the number under threescore years old, having been THE WIFE OF ONE MAN"

If we follow your erroneous cult hermeneutic, then we can say that women had plural wives?

PROVE IT WITH SCRIPTURE CHAPTER AND VERSE DR.DO-LITTLE.

[TK Burk]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Eph 5:22-33 "Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of THE BODY. Therefore as THE CHURCH is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing. Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved THE CHURCH, and gave himself for it; That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word, That he might present it to himself A glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish. So ought men to love their wives as their OWN BODIES. He (SINGULAR) that loveth HIS WIFE (SINGULAR) loveth HIMSELF (SINGULAR). For no MAN (SINGULAR) ever yet hated his own flesh; but nourisheth and cherisheth it, even as the Lord THE CHURCH: For we are members (PLURAL PARTS, LIKE EYES, EARS, FEET, NOT ENTIRE WHOLE BODIES) of HIS BODY (SINGULAR), of his flesh, and of his bones. For THIS CAUSE (OR REASON) shall a MAN (SINGULAR) leave his FATHER (SINGULAR) and MOTHER (SINGULAR), and shall be joined unto HIS WIFE (SINGULAR), and they TWO (1+1=2) shall be ONE FLESH. This is a great mystery (ESPECIALLY TO DR DEMENTO AND AQUILA): but I speak concerning Christ and THE CHURCH. Nevertheless let every one of you in particular so love his WIFE (SINGULAR) even as himself; and THE WIFE (SINGULAR) see that SHE (SINGULAR)reverence HER (SINGULAR) husband."

It's pretty simple math if you ask me. Jesus only has ONE BODY, that ONE BODY is THE one Church. Not a multiplicity of churches, but only ONE CHURCH.

Adam was made one wife, It was Adam and Eve, not Adam, and 10 other women. This is to show Christ and His Church.

In Jesus name

Brother Benincasa

www.OnTimeJournal.com

Very good post!

Here is a scriptural COMMAND BY GOD for a man to practice Polygamy

1_Corinthians 7:10-11 & 27-28.

In 1 Corinthians 7, the Apostle Paul differentiates when he is making his own "recommendation" (in verses 6, 12, and 25) and when he is expressing the "commandment of the Lord" (verses 10-11). Indeed, in verses 10-11, Paul clarifies that the instruction in those two verses is the "commandment of the Lord".

With that realized, it is clear for readers of the Bible that Paul makes it emphatically clear that verses 10-11 are different. Namely, verses 10-11, in the exact way in which thay are actually written, are the "commandment of God".

"And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife." 1 Corinthians 7:10-11.

Paul further specifies that that above "commandment of the Lord" was only addressed to believers-married-to-believers. In the next verses (i.e, 12-16), he clarifies that he is subsequently addressing believers-married-to-unbelievers, and that that subsequent instuction is not the Lord's words, but his own again.

Verses 10-11 show that, if a believer WIFE leaves her believer HUSBAND, the

* believer WIFE is commanded of God to either:
remain unmarried, or
be reconciled back to her husband

* believer HUSBAND is commanded of God to:
not put away any wife, and to
let any departed wife return back to him

The key point is that the HUSBAND is NOT given the same commandments of instruction. Only the WIFE is commanded to remain unmarried, but the HUSBAND is not given that commandment. He is commanded of God to let her be married to him, either way!

Accordingly, the HUSBAND is of course, still free to marry another wife. That fact is further proved by the later verses of 27-28d.

"Art thou bound unto a wife?
seek not to be loosed.
Art thou loosed from a wife?
seek not a wife.
But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned;
and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned."
1 Corinthians 7:27-28d.

The Greek text of verse 27 is clearly only addressing married men --whether or not the wife has departed.

As such, the married man whose wife is still with him does not sin when he marries another wife (who is not another's wife). And likewise, the married man, whose wife has departed from him, he also does not sin when he marries another wife (who is not another's wife).

And herein comes the "commandment of the Lord", of polygamy, as in the following situation.

A believer WIFE departs from her believer HUSBAND. She is commanded of God to remain unmarried, per verses 10-11. Her HUSBAND, however, then subsequently marries another wife (who is not another man's wife). The HUSBAND and the new wife have not sinned, per verses 27-28. The departed WIFE then seeks to be reconciled back to her HUSBAND.

In that situation, verses 10-11 show the following instruction as the "commandment of the Lord". The HUSBAND is commanded of God to let the departed wife be reconciled back to him. AND.... he is commanded of God to not put away a wife, including the new wife.

As such, verses 10-11 show that it is an outright "commandment of the Lord" of polygamy for the family in that situation.

1 Corinthians 7:10-11 is indeed a Commandment of God --- in the New Testament --- that, when a previously-departed believer wife returns, her believer husband and his new (believer) wife (from verse 27c-28d) MUST let the previous wife be reconciled to her husband.

There truly IS a "commandment of the Lord" for a situation of polygamy to be found in the Bible ---and it's in the New Testament Scriptures, as well!

[Michael Phelps]

Originally Posted by LUKE2447

This goes to your failure to understand that the NT is not to point to SIN it was already pointed to in the LAW! He did not have to rewrite what sin was and polygamy is not one of them. The "SCRIPTURES" are the OT and they instruct. Considering that the NT does not forbid polygamy to everyone you cannot say anything changed. Also why would it when God told be to do it and clearly allowed it, was that not the purpose of the law to point out sin? If you say polygamy is a sin you call God a sinner. The only reason the church changed was actually to do Gentile and Roman/pagan influence into the church.

This logic is so incredibly flawed, I'm almost speechless.

First, let me clarify, are you saying that there is nothing in the OT that God allowed that He now does not allow?


If so, when Paul commanded every man to love his "WIFE" as Christ loved the "CHURCH", singular, not plural, that Paul was in direct defiance to God?

[Michael Phelps]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

Here is a scriptural COMMAND BY GOD for a man to practice Polygamy

1_Corinthians 7:10-11 & 27-28.

In 1 Corinthians 7, the Apostle Paul differentiates when he is making his own "recommendation" (in verses 6, 12, and 25) and when he is expressing the "commandment of the Lord" (verses 10-11). Indeed, in verses 10-11, Paul clarifies that the instruction in those two verses is the "commandment of the Lord".

With that realized, it is clear for readers of the Bible that Paul makes it emphatically clear that verses 10-11 are different. Namely, verses 10-11, in the exact way in which thay are actually written, are the "commandment of God".

"And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife." 1 Corinthians 7:10-11.

Paul further specifies that that above "commandment of the Lord" was only addressed to believers-married-to-believers. In the next verses (i.e, 12-16), he clarifies that he is subsequently addressing believers-married-to-unbelievers, and that that subsequent instuction is not the Lord's words, but his own again.

Verses 10-11 show that, if a believer WIFE leaves her believer HUSBAND, the

* believer WIFE is commanded of God to either:
remain unmarried, or
be reconciled back to her husband

* believer HUSBAND is commanded of God to:
not put away any wife, and to
let any departed wife return back to him

The key point is that the HUSBAND is NOT given the same commandments of instruction. Only the WIFE is commanded to remain unmarried, but the HUSBAND is not given that commandment. He is commanded of God to let her be married to him, either way!

Accordingly, the HUSBAND is of course, still free to marry another wife. That fact is further proved by the later verses of 27-28d.

"Art thou bound unto a wife?
seek not to be loosed.
Art thou loosed from a wife?
seek not a wife.
But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned;
and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned."
1 Corinthians 7:27-28d.

The Greek text of verse 27 is clearly only addressing married men --whether or not the wife has departed.

As such, the married man whose wife is still with him does not sin when he marries another wife (who is not another's wife). And likewise, the married man, whose wife has departed from him, he also does not sin when he marries another wife (who is not another's wife).

And herein comes the "commandment of the Lord", of polygamy, as in the following situation.

A believer WIFE departs from her believer HUSBAND. She is commanded of God to remain unmarried, per verses 10-11. Her HUSBAND, however, then subsequently marries another wife (who is not another man's wife). The HUSBAND and the new wife have not sinned, per verses 27-28. The departed WIFE then seeks to be reconciled back to her HUSBAND.

In that situation, verses 10-11 show the following instruction as the "commandment of the Lord". The HUSBAND is commanded of God to let the departed wife be reconciled back to him. AND.... he is commanded of God to not put away a wife, including the new wife.

As such, verses 10-11 show that it is an outright "commandment of the Lord" of polygamy for the family in that situation.

1 Corinthians 7:10-11 is indeed a Commandment of God --- in the New Testament --- that, when a previously-departed believer wife returns, her believer husband and his new (believer) wife (from verse 27c-28d) MUST let the previous wife be reconciled to her husband.

There truly IS a "commandment of the Lord" for a situation of polygamy to be found in the Bible ---and it's in the New Testament Scriptures, as well!

Wow.........unbelievable. I guess this just goes to show that you can twist scripture to back up ANY belief.........sorry, Mr. Vaughn, but I refuse to ascribe to this particular brand of "truth".

[Evang.Benincasa]

Hey, Elder Burk from that avatar, Dr. Denton, looks like a young kid?

How long was this dude in school?