TRANSCRIPT Of Message By HANEY!!!!!!!!!!!!

[ronharvey]

Originally Posted by Stephanas

The apostles were baptized by Jesus Himself, and you don't get any more baptized in Jesus name than that:

(John 3:22) "After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized."

After that, the disciples baptized those who became Christ followers:

(John 4:1-2) "When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John, 2 (Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)"

*** Many commentators assume from the later passage (4:2) that only the disciples baptized, but I prefer the more literal reading of the text.

This is what I was getting to myself. I agree with you on this.

[jimmyrrs]

Originally Posted by jimmyrrs

At the risk of being an outcast by my oneness brothers, is there scripture that states a single person receiving the HG with the evidence of tongues.

Bump

[jimmyrrs]

Originally Posted by jimmyrrs

Bump

Wow. No one is willing to answer. Are we looking for the answer, don't care, or know the answer and wish not to say?
Please understand I DO BELEIVE IN THE HG WITH THE EVIDENCE OF TONGUES.
I'll check back later, going to church.

[Stephanas]

Originally Posted by jimmyrrs

Wow. No one is willing to answer. Are we looking for the answer, don't care, or know the answer and wish not to say?
Please understand I DO BELEIVE IN THE HG WITH THE EVIDENCE OF TONGUES.
I'll check back later, going to church.

The problem isn't that you have presented an unanswerable conundrum for your Oneness brethren. The problem is that your question is obviously a statement with a question mark at the end, and I can't figure out what your point really is.

Your sentence leaves me wondering what you are saying: "At the risk of being an outcast by my oneness brothers, is there scripture that states a single person receiving the HG with the evidence of tongues."

Are you making the point that only married people are said to have experienced tongues as evidence of receiving the Holy Ghost?

Here is a Scripture that directly identifies tongues as evidence that the gift of the Holy Ghost was poured out on the new Gentile believers:

(Acts 10:44-46) "While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. 45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost. 46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God."

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Stephanas

The problem isn't that you have presented an unanswerable conundrum for your Oneness brethren. The problem is that your question is obviously a statement with a question mark at the end, and I can't figure out what your point really is.

Your sentence leaves me wondering what you are saying: "At the risk of being an outcast by my oneness brothers, is there scripture that states a single person receiving the HG with the evidence of tongues."

Are you making the point that only married people are said to have experienced tongues as evidence of receiving the Holy Ghost?

Here is a Scripture that directly identifies tongues as evidence that the gift of the Holy Ghost was poured out on the new Gentile believers:

(Acts 10:44-46) "While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. 45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost. 46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God."

That is what I was gonna say...was he asking if only married people get it?

[jimmyrrs]

Originally Posted by Stephanas

The problem isn't that you have presented an unanswerable conundrum for your Oneness brethren. The problem is that your question is obviously a statement with a question mark at the end, and I can't figure out what your point really is.

Your sentence leaves me wondering what you are saying: "At the risk of being an outcast by my oneness brothers, is there scripture that states a single person receiving the HG with the evidence of tongues."

Are you making the point that only married people are said to have experienced tongues as evidence of receiving the Holy Ghost?

Here is a Scripture that directly identifies tongues as evidence that the gift of the Holy Ghost was poured out on the new Gentile believers:

(Acts 10:44-46) "While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. 45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost. 46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God."

My question is "is there scripture that states a single person receiving the HG with the evidence of tongues"? I have had this talk with several of my oneness brothers which leads to hurt feelings and leaves me on the outside because they fill I'm tring to prove something different. But I'm not. It started with about 120 and went from there.
In my search I have not been able to find scripture which gives an example of ONE person (by themself) in the Bible receiving the HG with tongues following.
There are several places in the Word which shows examples of GROUPS, HOUSEHOLDS, THEM, THEY, etc.. receiving the HG and some places it talks about speaking in tongues.
WHY not ONE person by themself. I have come to beleive that it shows there is no indifferance by God to whom receives the HG. It's not just for one person (thus NO ONE person is singled out in scripture). It is as the Word states "For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the LORD our God shall call." My God is the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.
When we talk to people about the HG with the evidence of speaking in tongues it's hard to witness to them about tongues because their understanding of scripture is not as your's or mine. They are very smart yet their eyes are closed.

I was in no way speaking about only married people getting it. LOL

I have been asked the very question I ask before when witnessing. Show me ONE person by themself who received the HG with tongues? I can not. If there is I would like to know to help me next time.

[SDG]

Originally Posted by jimmyrrs

My question is "is there scripture that states a single person receiving the HG with the evidence of tongues"? I have had this talk with several of my oneness brothers which leads to hurt feelings and leaves me on the outside because they fill I'm tring to prove something different. But I'm not. It started with about 120 and went from there.
In my search I have not been able to find scripture which gives an example of ONE person (by themself) in the Bible receiving the HG with tongues following.
There are several places in the Word which shows examples of GROUPS, HOUSEHOLDS, THEM, THEY, etc.. receiving the HG and some places it talks about speaking in tongues.
WHY not ONE person by themself. I have come to beleive that it shows there is no indifferance by God to whom receives the HG. It's not just for one person (thus NO ONE person is singled out in scripture). It is as the Word states "For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the LORD our God shall call." My God is the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.
When we talk to people about the HG with the evidence of speaking in tongues it's hard to witness to them about tongues because their understanding of scripture is not as your's or mine. They are very smart yet their eyes are closed.

I was in no way speaking about only married people getting it. LOL

I have been asked the very question I ask before when witnessing. Show me ONE person by themself who received the HG with tongues? I can not. If there is I would like to know to help me next time.

Interesting thought ... I'm sure the cessassionists have a theory on this ...

Don't make much of it however.

I will note that we do not find evidence of tongues in the individual conversions of the eunuch or Paul.



Acts 8:

34The eunuch asked Philip, "Tell me, please, who is the prophet talking about, himself or someone else?" 35Then Philip began with that very passage of Scripture and told him the good news about Jesus. 36As they traveled along the road, they came to some water and the eunuch said, "Look, here is water. Why shouldn't I be baptized?"[f] 38And he gave orders to stop the chariot. Then both Philip and the eunuch went down into the water and Philip baptized him. 39When they came up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord suddenly took Philip away, and the eunuch did not see him again, but went on his way rejoicing. 40Philip, however, appeared at Azotus and traveled about, preaching the gospel in all the towns until he reached Caesarea.

Acts 9

17And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house; and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost.
18And immediately there fell from his eyes as it had been scales: and he received sight forthwith, and arose, and was baptized.

In Acts 9 we can infer that Paul was filled but cannot assume there was tongues.

Also I don't know if we can say that it was 120 that received the Holy Ghost in Acts 2 ...There seems to be delineation between chapters 1 and 2. Nor is there evidence of tongues from the 3000 that were added to the church on the Day of Pentecost.

41Those who accepted his message were baptized, and about three thousand were added to their number that day. 41Those who accepted his message were baptized, and about three thousand were added to their number that day.

There also appears to be a gap in time between the conversion of the Samarians and them being filled with the Holy Ghost ... and there is no clear evidence of tongues in Acts 8 either ... just prooftexting and speculations from biblical silence.

[Stephanas]

Originally Posted by jimmyrrs

My question is "is there scripture that states a single person receiving the HG with the evidence of tongues"? I have had this talk with several of my oneness brothers which leads to hurt feelings and leaves me on the outside because they fill I'm tring to prove something different. But I'm not. It started with about 120 and went from there.
In my search I have not been able to find scripture which gives an example of ONE person (by themself) in the Bible receiving the HG with tongues following.
There are several places in the Word which shows examples of GROUPS, HOUSEHOLDS, THEM, THEY, etc.. receiving the HG and some places it talks about speaking in tongues.
WHY not ONE person by themself. I have come to beleive that it shows there is no indifferance by God to whom receives the HG. It's not just for one person (thus NO ONE person is singled out in scripture). It is as the Word states "For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the LORD our God shall call." My God is the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.
When we talk to people about the HG with the evidence of speaking in tongues it's hard to witness to them about tongues because their understanding of scripture is not as your's or mine. They are very smart yet their eyes are closed.

I was in no way speaking about only married people getting it. LOL

I have been asked the very question I ask before when witnessing. Show me ONE person by themself who received the HG with tongues? I can not. If there is I would like to know to help me next time.

I really don’t understand the thrust of the argument that you are encountering. A group is simply a collection of individuals, unless they are asserting that being part of a particular group entitles you to the blessing of the Holy Spirit, without consideration of the condition of the individual’s heart.

[Stephanas]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

Interesting thought ... I'm sure the cessassionists have a theory on this ...

Don't make much of it however.

I will note that we do not find evidence of tongues in the individual conversions of the eunuch or Paul.

In Paul's case we do have evidence that he spoke in tongues subsequent to his conversion. We must either place him in one of the group baptisms or conclude that he received a "single" experience of the Spirit.

[BadgerBoysMom]

Originally Posted by Stephanas

The apostles were baptized by Jesus Himself, and you don't get any more baptized in Jesus name than that:

So are you saying here that it is "in his name" simply because he was the one who baptized them? Or it because it is in his authority he exercised in the baptism? In my experience the emphasis has always been on the specific words used. "In Jesus Name". I mean what did Jesus say? In MY name? IF this is the case why did He not specifically state this in Matt 28:19? Surely He is not a God who would deliberately be ambiguous?

I have always been told when asking about the "formula" in Matt 28:19 that Jesus was not yet glorified so he would not give that specific answer?

It is my understanding that He was not yet glorified until AFTER the resurection. At this point (before the resurection) would it be considered valid?

Originally Posted by Stephanas

(John 3:22) "After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized.".

Jesus baptized who? It doesn't really specify "who" he baptized it just says he did.

In the next verse (John 3:23) it says this...

23And John also was baptizing in Aenon near to Salim, because there was much water there: and they came, and were baptized.

In reading this is appears they were baptized by John. Which would lead me to the question why did they not have to be "rebaptized in Jesus name" as those in the books of Acts who were baptized unto John's baptizm.

Please know that I am not being arguementative in any way. I in no way claim to be a bible scholar. These are questions that are just bouncing around in my head.

Tanks for your response. I do appreciate your time.