Baptism question for One-Steppers - Page 10

pelathais · #91 03-31-2009, 05:41 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

The were baptized with remission of sins in view Calvary was NOT thus they were baptized looking forward to remission of sins. However John's disciples were rebaptized recieving remission of sins in HIs Name. Acts. 19:5

Except it really doesn't say that.

Luke 1:77 - John the Baptist was to "give knowledge of salvation unto his people (Israel) by the remission of their sins..."

You seem to want it to say, "to give knowledge of salvation by making them wait for 30 years before the remission of their sins..."

Praxeas · #92 03-31-2009, 05:44 PM

Im still waiting for SE to show me where I said Paul was to baptize himself in his own name. After I pointed out I did not say that he never responded

pelathais · #93 03-31-2009, 06:01 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Praxeas

"Call upon" is the middle voice

middle —The grammatical voice that signifies that the subject of the verb is being affected by its own action or is acting upon itself.

Heiser, M. S. (2005; 2005). Glossary of Morpho-Syntactic Database Terminology (middle). Logos Bible Software.
...

FWIW - "middle voice" or even "voice" in particular is not restricted to Greek. It's an observed feature in most languages.

Some have taken the same info as your post to argue that Paul himself was responsible for "calling" the name of the Lord upon himself. They make this point in contradistinction to the most popular fashion of having "the preacher" or the one officiating "call the name of the Lord."

pelathais · #94 03-31-2009, 06:05 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Im still waiting for SE to show me where I said Paul was to baptize himself in his own name. After I pointed out I did not say that he never responded

He may be out, but since he and I hold such similar views that people keep getting us mixed up on this board, I will take the liberty of speaking for SE...

"I don't have to "show" you anything. You made the statement yourself and you know very well what you said. I remember distinctly reading your post on the matter and being so surprised by your deviation from truth that I hit the top of my head on the pencil drawer or my desk."

Steve Epley · #95 03-31-2009, 06:06 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by pelathais

Except it really doesn't say that.

Luke 1:77 - John the Baptist was to "give knowledge of salvation unto his people (Israel) by the remission of their sins..."

You seem to want it to say, "to give knowledge of salvation by making them wait for 30 years before the remission of their sins..."

"30 years??????????? however WITHOUT THE SHEDDING OF BLOOD THERE IS NO REMISSION." Heb. 9:22

Steve Epley · #96 03-31-2009, 06:06 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Im still waiting for SE to show me where I said Paul was to baptize himself in his own name. After I pointed out I did not say that he never responded

No one said he baptized in his own name.

pelathais · #97 03-31-2009, 06:11 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

"30 years??????????? however WITHOUT THE SHEDDING OF BLOOD THERE IS NO REMISSION." Heb. 9:22

So how did John's baptism "show salvation" and remit sins as Mark 1:4; Luke 1:77 and Luke 3:3 so clearly state?

Or do you hold the view that the Greek word translated as "for" means "with a view to" or "looking toward" as many have said about Acts 2:38?

Steve Epley · #98 03-31-2009, 06:18 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by pelathais

So how did John's baptism "show salvation" and remit sins as Mark 1:4; Luke 1:77 and Luke 3:3 so clearly state?

Or do you hold the view that the Greek word translated as "for" means "with a view to" or "looking toward" as many have said about Acts 2:38?

The distinquishing factor between John's baptism and Acts 2 :38 is Calvary and the shed blood.