Quote:
Originally Posted by Praxeas
Maybe he quoted the hebrew/aramaic and then whoever wrote the gospels used the LXX
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I believe the disconnect can be traced to Jerome and the Latin Vulgate. Why would the translators use the Vulgate in Isaiah and the LXX when Jesus quoted Isaiah in Luke?
Have you studied any of the details of the findings of the Dead Scrolls, I think you might find it very interesting.
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