Quote:
Originally Posted by HeavenlyOne
The same person who was discussing this on the other thread (not the originator of this thread) also says that 1 Cor 11 has nothing to do with headship, therefore all women are subject to all men.
No, don't tell him he's wrong. He's arrived, and he's right.
I challenged him to post a poll. He said I was silly for suggesting such a thing.
Chicken. LOL! |
Now we've resorted to outright dishonesty I see eh, Joy?
I NEVER said that
I Cor. 11 is not talking about headship. I said that not one single reputable translation mentions "husband/wife," but rather the subject matter is heirarchial structure & lineage. 1.) God, 2.) Christ, the Messiah, 3.) Man, 4) Woman. That's what the literal text says...YOU are the one supplying the "Husband/Wife" scenario via your theology.
I see in your 2nd sentence above that it's just fine for you to resort to "Ad Hominem" attacks. Of course, that's what they usually do when they cannot find Scripture to support their position.
As for your "poll," I simply pointed out that you're employing the logical fallacy, "Argumentum ad Populum." That is, an appeal to the populace for your doctrinal posture...which has absolutely NOTHING to do w/ the actual text of God's Word. If this be the case you probably would've been screaming "Give us Barrabbas," along w/ the Jews that day! So, yes, it is a silly suggestion.
So much for your "chicken" charge....LOL.
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