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  #1  
Old 01-26-2010, 10:01 AM
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Dimples Dimples is offline
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Re: The Biblical response to ACTS 2:38

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Originally Posted by freeatlast View Post
I am of the belief that if tongues were the only bonifide sign a person has receved the spirit it would work

The examples in the bible, when tongues were used as a sign, it just happened. no coachng, no one told them, now you are going to speak in tongues.

We see no examples in the book at failed attempts to "Get It"

No examples of alter workers jiggling jaws, praying in seekers ears,

No examples of someone being told, that was really a nice try, you almost got it, come back and try again next Sunday night. BTW pray and fast all week and try to make yourself better or good enough so God can come into your life.

We make a mockery of grace, mercy and forgivness when we tell people they have to make themselves good enough for God to save.

While we were yet sinners, He loved us and paid for our sin.
Another AMEN!!

What a journey to get here!
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Old 01-26-2010, 10:10 AM
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Re: The Biblical response to ACTS 2:38

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Originally Posted by Dimples View Post
Another AMEN!!

What a journey to get here!

Some say that the Holy Ghost is God speaking through us. If that's the case God sure has a limited vocabulary in some cases, for I've heard some say the same thing over and over and over. Seems to me like it is a learned response and not a divine inspiration. Just my thoughts.

And another thing, begging for the "GIFT" of the Holy Ghost goes against common sense. You don't beg for "a gift!" It is a gift, given, not begged for.
The dictionary said about a gift...."a thing given willingly to someone without payment."

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Old 01-26-2010, 12:44 PM
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Re: The Biblical response to ACTS 2:38

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Originally Posted by BeenThinkin View Post
Some say that the Holy Ghost is God speaking through us. If that's the case God sure has a limited vocabulary in some cases, for I've heard some say the same thing over and over and over. Seems to me like it is a learned response and not a divine inspiration. Just my thoughts.

And another thing, begging for the "GIFT" of the Holy Ghost goes against common sense. You don't beg for "a gift!" It is a gift, given, not begged for.
The dictionary said about a gift...."a thing given willingly to someone without payment."

BeenThinkin
I know of a preacher that in most every sermon, when he hits his stride, gives out a "Shondo ma hya"

I don't remember any other utterances.

Did you ever think to yourself it all tongue talking in the bible was by the spirit WHY would Pau,l writing by the spirit, have to tell the Corinthians not to be doing it all the time (1 Cor 14)

If it was a botherig the Holy spirit enough to tell Paul to address this issue, why did't the holy spirit just not manifest this gift thru the Corinthians

A Corinthian speaks in tongues by the Holy Spirit, then the Holy Spirit tells them Shhhhhh !! thru Pauls epistle.
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Old 01-26-2010, 12:48 PM
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Re: The Biblical response to ACTS 2:38

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Originally Posted by freeatlast View Post
I know of a preacher that in most every sermon, when he hits his stride, gives out a "Shondo ma hya"

I don't remember any other utterances.

Did you ever think to yourself it all tongue talking in the bible was by the spirit WHY would Pau,l writing by the spirit, have to tell the Corinthians not to be doing it all the time (1 Cor 14)

If it was a botherig the Holy spirit enough to tell Paul to address this issue, why did't the holy spirit just not manifest this gift thru the Corinthians

A Corinthian speaks in tongues by the Holy Spirit, then the Holy Spirit tells them Shhhhhh !! thru Pauls epistle.
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Old 01-26-2010, 01:32 PM
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missourimary missourimary is offline
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Re: The Biblical response to ACTS 2:38

But why do we need "proof" of people getting the Holy Ghost? Sinners may need evidence, but why does the church? In Acts 2, the Holy Ghost had never before been poured out in such a way. In Acts 10, the Holy Ghost had never been poured out on Gentiles before. Therefore, evidence may have been needed in certain cases. But does that mean it is always necessary to have outward evidence?
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Old 01-26-2010, 01:37 PM
RandyWayne RandyWayne is offline
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Re: The Biblical response to ACTS 2:38

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Originally Posted by missourimary View Post
But why do we need "proof" of people getting the Holy Ghost? Sinners may need evidence, but why does the church? In Acts 2, the Holy Ghost had never before been poured out in such a way. In Acts 10, the Holy Ghost had never been poured out on Gentiles before. Therefore, evidence may have been needed in certain cases. But does that mean it is always necessary to have outward evidence?
An excellent point.

I am trying to remember the last time I heard the sound of a mighty rushing wind or saw cloven tongues like as of fire as well.
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Old 01-26-2010, 01:53 PM
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bishoph bishoph is offline
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Re: The Biblical response to ACTS 2:38

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An excellent point.

I am trying to remember the last time I heard the sound of a mighty rushing wind or saw cloven tongues like as of fire as well.
Nice try......... the wind/fire was not mentioned in the other historical occasions, however, tongues is a consistent part of the experience.

IMHO tongues as the initial evidence is easy to explain and understand. In the book of James we are told that if any man can control his tongue he can control the whole body. I believe that God could have chosen any "evidence" of having received his spirit that he wanted to.......but if he has control of the tongue he should have control of the whole body. I know many will say "what about those who's life/actions etc never change, or don't change right away?" If they never change....then they have not received the Holy Ghost or they aborted the work of God in their life. If their change is slow/gradual........it is the Holy Ghost working in them as they grow/mature in their relationship with God. (Just as it does in all of our lives......at least in mine.....I am not perfected as yet.....as hard as that may be to believe)

Last edited by bishoph; 01-26-2010 at 01:55 PM.
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Old 01-26-2010, 10:53 PM
Aquila Aquila is offline
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Re: The Biblical response to ACTS 2:38

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Originally Posted by missourimary View Post
But why do we need "proof" of people getting the Holy Ghost? Sinners may need evidence, but why does the church? In Acts 2, the Holy Ghost had never before been poured out in such a way. In Acts 10, the Holy Ghost had never been poured out on Gentiles before. Therefore, evidence may have been needed in certain cases. But does that mean it is always necessary to have outward evidence?
Another question I'd ask is, while tongues may be "evidence" of the abiding presence of the Holy Ghost... is it possible for the Holy Ghost to have an abiding presence without "evidence"? Many things in the Christian walk are true and very real, but lacking "evidence".
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Old 01-26-2010, 02:14 PM
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Re: The Biblical response to ACTS 2:38

What is the text surrounding the verses in James discussing? People getting the Holy Ghost or offenses, hypocrisy, and faith/works/fruit in the life of a believer?
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Old 01-26-2010, 03:07 PM
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Re: The Biblical response to ACTS 2:38

Been thinkin and Freeatlast:
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