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Originally Posted by YounginHope
1. I used the OT in nearly every post.
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Not sure if it was you, but several here have stated 'yeah, but that's all in the old testament' as if that just invalidates everything said so far. I have seen this on other subjects as well - people say 'all those verses are from the OT so it doesn't apply'.
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2. Yes it occurred in one setting, and we are clearly taught in that one setting what happens. Hence why there wasn't more than one occurrence?
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And what was clearly taught? First of all, that Jesus did not command disarmament. Secondly, that those who live by the sword will die by the sword. Nobody who knows anything about weapons denies that. But what then are we to draw from this? How is this to be applied? I suggest that applying that passage by saying 'see? We are not to be armed or to use arms for self defense!' is going waaaay beyond what is written, and in fact contradicts what is written. But then again, I have seen it on other subjects here and other places (in real life even) where
people seem to think that if an event in scripture happened once, it means it can be ignored and holds nothing for us today - unless it is repeated over and over again. Which I absolutely do not understand????
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3. Question 2 covers this also.
I feel like we are running in circles. It is a deep subject that touches many people. I don't have all the answers or time to post. My apologies if I have offended anyone.
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No offense taken (not by me, anyway). I just thought it was weird that people would suggest 'that happened before Pentecost, so it doesn't apply for today'. I really don't understand that kind of reasoning. I have no idea where it actually comes from (for sure it doesn't come from the Bible itself).
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