Do OPs have a grace problem?

[seekerman]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

You didn't answer

Neither did you.

[Originalist]

Originally Posted by seekerman

I'm not sure where the blood actually redeems someone in your answer. Could you be more specific about the point in time when a person is redeemed by the blood of the Lamb of God? Is it an identifiable point in time?

I answered your question so stop pretending that I didn't. The blood redeemed (purchased) everyone for God. The mark that someone has yielded to God as their rightful owner (accepting that they are redeemed) is him personally coming to live inside of them by the Spirit.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by seekerman

Neither did you.

That's because I asked you first and are waiting for an answer. You make this very confusing and hard to understand what you believe and what the point is

[seekerman]

Originally Posted by Originalist

I answered your question so stop pretending that I didn't. The blood redeemed (purchased) everyone for God. The mark that someone has yielded to God as their rightful owner (accepting that they are redeemed) is him personally coming to live inside of them by the Spirit.

No, you haven't answered when and how a person is redeemed by the blood of the Lamb of God. You're speaking in generalities.

[Originalist]

Originally Posted by seekerman

I'm attempting to discuss the blood of the Lamb of God and how that relates to salvation. You're attempting to do the usual Godhead/baptism/tongues/standard thingie.

You really have a lying tongue, don't you? Please cite where I've mentioned the God or tongues, or dwelt on baptism. I'm simply trying to explain how one is born of the SPIRIT which Jesus mentioned in John 3.

[seekerman]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

That's because I asked you first and are waiting for an answer. You make this very confusing and hard to understand what you believe and what the point is

The point is, individuals are redeemed by the blood of the Lamb of God. When and how does that happen?

[seekerman]

Originally Posted by Originalist

You really have a lying tongue, don't you? Please cite where I've mentioned the God or tongues, or dwelt on baptism. I'm simply trying to explain how one is born of the SPIRIT which Jesus mentioned in John 3.

I'm simply attempting to get oneness pentecostals to discuss the redeeming blood of the Lamb of God.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by seekerman

The point is, individuals are redeemed by the blood of the Lamb of God. When and how does that happen?

The point was is what place does that have in salvation if any?

You seem to separate it from salvation and make it something everyone is (Redeemed) right now before faith...

is that true?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by seekerman

I'm simply attempting to get oneness pentecostals to discuss the redeeming blood of the Lamb of God.

that is what we've BEEN discussing but you make it difficult by the manner you dialog

[Originalist]

Originally Posted by seekerman

No, you haven't answered when and how a person is redeemed by the blood of the Lamb of God. You're speaking in generalities.

The only way that the universal redemption counts personally for anyone is when they are born again of the Spirit, which was the whole purpose of the redemption the blood made possible. So there is your answer. ALL are redeemed( ransomed, purchased) by the blood. As purchased possessions, God is their rightful owner. Those who personally submit to this will be marked as having accepted God as their rightful owner by God himself coming to reside in them as described by Paul in Ephesians chapter one.