ReDave, You extrapulated that. You added to that scripture. You had to interpret. You did exactly what you accused me of doing.
BTW: I admitted several times that I have to interpret KJV. There's no other way to understand it.
I see. Well, since the problem seems to be one of comprehension then maybe you could try reading an NIV with the KJV right next to it. I don't personally care for the NIV, but it can be used to help clarify things that can be difficult to understand in the KJV. I am having trouble with the Book of Jeremiah right now for the same reason; I can't seem to understand what it is I am reading. I am almost to the point of doing what I suggested you do to help me grasp what it is I am reading.
So when scripture states that God hardened pharoah's heart God didn't really mean that?
That's exactly right! Not only did God not mean that, He did not say that.
The translators just thought He did.
Here's proof.
(Isaiah 6:8-10) "Also I heard the voice of the Lord,........., vs9: And He said, Go, and tell this people, Hear ye indeed, but understand not, and see ye indeed, but perceive not. Vs10: Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut their eyes: lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and convert, and be healed."
Please tell me, what was the reason that they could not see with their eyes, hear with their ears, and understand with their hearts, so they could not be converted and healed? Do you agree that this passage sounds like God would shut their eyes and ears; and harden their hearts?
In (Matt 13:14-15), Jesus quotes (Isa 6:8-10) from the Septuagint OT. "And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand, and seeing ye shall see and not perceive: vs15: For this people's heart is waxed gross [stupid], and [their]ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed;...".
God didn't close their eyes, they closed their own eyes. Did God allow them to close their own eyes? Of course, God cannot go against your own will, because He has already set limits on Himself, in (Gen 1:28).
That's the same reason He could not rescue Job from the devil. (Gen 1:28) It was Job's will to become highly developed in fear. He lived in such great fear, that He would lose his health, his wealth, and his relationships. Then, "...the thing that I greatly feared is come upon me". (Job 3:25).
__________________
The Gospel of Jesus Christ: Jesus bore away my sins, my sickness, and my poverty. That covers it all. Everything else is just legalism.
It is easy to reconcile these scriptures when they are taken in context. Christ was asked " 2And his disciples asked him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind?
3Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him."
Christ was asked which one of the parents or son's sin caused him to be blind? It was not a question if they ever sinned.
That's the whole point that we have been discussing, that you can't reconcile apparent contradictions in KJV, without interpretation. I have never said it was bad, just that it is fact.
__________________
The Gospel of Jesus Christ: Jesus bore away my sins, my sickness, and my poverty. That covers it all. Everything else is just legalism.
No not really. I read the verse in it's entirety. It says what it means.
You have never answered my contention. If scripture has so many mistakes how do you KNOW which ones are correct?
I don't know YET, I haven't finished checking them all out.
When you say "scripture", which version or paraphrase do you mean?
You added your interpretation to the verse. Your last sentence was interpretation.
__________________
The Gospel of Jesus Christ: Jesus bore away my sins, my sickness, and my poverty. That covers it all. Everything else is just legalism.
That's the whole point that we have been discussing, that you can't reconcile apparent contradictions in KJV, without interpretation. I have never said it was bad, just that it is fact.
Brother, he didn't "interpret" anything. He just followed the context of the conversation. There's no interpretation involved with that. That's basic reading comprehension, Brother. I am not asking this to be a smart-aleck, but is reading comprehension an area you are weak in? This is an area my wife has problems with, so believe me when I tell you I am not asking to be a smart-aleck, or try to make you look bad.
Bro-Larry, First of all I think we're talking past each other a bit. Let's define terms. What do you mean by 'interpretation'?
Also I think you made the terms 'version' and 'paraphrase' synonymous and they are not. It all depends on the philosophy of the translation team. One must have a basic understanding of how that works. Have you studied the history of biblical textual criticism?
__________________ "I have had a perfectly wonderful evening, but this wasn't it."
It is true that God raised Pharaoh up [to the throne] for His own purpose, but God did not harden Pharoah's heart. Pharoah had the choice to do right or to do wrong. It would be unjust and unrighteous for God to harden Pharaoh's heart against Pharaoh's will. God is neither unjust nor unrighteous.
Don't get me started!
__________________
Hebrews 13:23 Know ye that our brother Timothy is set at liberty
i may be lost on this, but even if the devil has "works" he has to get God's permission first anyway. is there ANYTHING that happens in the entire universe that God is not aware of before it happens?
if He allows it, He knew it would happen before it happened but He does not stop it from happening when He could. It's hard to trust God when bad things happen, but it's His world, His creation and His plan.
__________________
"The choices we make reveal the true nature of our character."
Linear Mode
