The Word Shekinah ?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Falla39

[/b]

Brother,
That is YOUR opinion and you are not a woman and it's not your hair!

No that is not my opinion. That is what the bible says or does not say. It does NOT say God's GLORY rests on her because she has uncut hair. Please use scripture, don't just tell me that is my opinion. The person in question made a DIRECT connection between uncut hair and God's Glory and no such scripture supports that. Ask yourself this question "Why did that person say 'uncut hair' and not rather 'God's glory rests on all saints that obey Him"?"

Why? Because of a false view of scriptures that some are teaching that a woman has supernatural power in her hair when it is uncut.

That is a false doctrine. Keep your hair uncut if you want, but don't tell me the bible teaches such a doctrine and tell me that it's just my opinion that it does not. Quote scriptures

[nahkoe]

Originally Posted by pelathais

FWIW: The word "rapture" is in the Bible as every good Catholic apologist will be more than happy to point out to you in 1 Thessalonians 4:17.

And for TJJJ and Scott - the word "shekinah" is NOT "cloud" neither is it "glory" in Exodus 24:16 and Exodus 40:35. It is the Hebrew word that is translated as "abode" in both verses. The word is used as both a noun and a verb.

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ShakanTWOT - 2387Phonetic SpellingParts of Speechshaw-kan' Verb Definition

1. to settle down, abide, dwell, tabernacle, reside
   1. (Qal)
      1. to settle down to abide
      2. to abide, dwell, reside
   2. (Piel)
      1. to make settle down, establish
      2. to make or cause to dwell
   3. (Hiphil)
      1. to lay, place, set, establish, settle, fix
      2. to cause to dwell or abide

King James Word Usage - Total: 129dwell 92, abide 8, place 7, remain 5, inhabit 4, rest 3, set 2, continue 1, dwellers 1, dwelling 1, miscellaneous 5

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The word "shekinah" appears a total of 129 times in the Bible.

I believe Rhoni needs to free up some time on her calendar for a date with a couple of gentlemen who will buy her dinner.

That's not the word shekinah. That's shakan. Shakeniah is used as a proper name 10 times. It means "intimate with Jehovah". Shekinah is strictly a Talmudic word meaning "presence of God". Shekinah itself is not in the Hebrew OT. The concept, of course, is.

[nahkoe]

Originally Posted by pelathais

"Shakan" has the same stem word as "Shekinah." I'm not even a Hebraist but I learned that from Strong's and the BDB. "Shakan" is a verb form and "Shekinah" is the noun form of the same stem word.

And, I believe the original discussion that Rhoni responded to was "in the Bible..." Then there followed discussions about other similar examples like the word "rapture." It seems to me that your "KJV" and "english ot" are post hoc conditions that don't apply to your original challenge.

Language is a complex area of study. To show a true misunderstanding of Greek inflections and Hebrew stem words seems to say that one hasn't even tried, however.

This is true, but the noun form isn't used in the Hebrew OT anywhere. It's used in the Talmud to describe the presence of God. If one is being strict about it, as the former posters are, that matters. Although, they want shekinah to show up in an English translation. lol

[nahkoe]

Originally Posted by pelathais

I found it 129 times.

http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/...31&version=kjv

But, if you understand Hebrew...you know you have to take a form of a word back to it's root, but you can't take a root forward to another form not used. Since the root is used, but not the noun form shekinah, you can't say that shakan equals shekinah. You could, however, find a verse with shekinah (if such a thing existed) and use the meaning of that word, plus the meaning of shakan, to more fully understand the meaning intended.

[Scott Hutchinson]

Thank you Nahkoe,as your knowledgeable in this area.
Ok now I think you can help me,The Talmud is not the same as The Hebrew scriptures is it ? I think it is more of a oral tradition,please correct me if I am wrong.
http://www.faqs.org/faqs/judaism/FAQ...ection-16.html

[TJJJ]

Originally Posted by pelathais

"Shakan" has the same stem word as "Shekinah." I'm not even a Hebraist but I learned that from Strong's and the BDB. "Shakan" is a verb form and "Shekinah" is the noun form of the same stem word.

And, I believe the original discussion that Rhoni responded to was "in the Bible..." Then there followed discussions about other similar examples like the word "rapture." It seems to me that your "KJV" and "english ot" are post hoc conditions that don't apply to your original challenge.

Language is a complex area of study. To show a true misunderstanding of Greek inflections and Hebrew stem words seems to say that one hasn't even tried, however.

Scott,


Pay em BOTH!

[nahkoe]

Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson

Thank you Nahkoe,as your knowledgeable in this area.
Ok now I think you can help me,The Talmud is not the same as The Hebrew scriptures is it ? I think it is more of a oral tradition,please correct me if I am wrong.
http://www.faqs.org/faqs/judaism/FAQ...ection-16.html

You're right. And no time to read links, I'm sorry.

The Talmud is the interpretation of the Hebrew Tanakh by Rabbis. It was originally oral, although there are some parts of this written down now. I have a copy of Everyman's Talmud that's a fascinating read.

To find a word, such as shekinah, in the Talmud does give it some weight, IMO. Not everyone is going to agree with my opinion though. The Rabbis have always been highly educated and trained in understanding and interpreting the Tanakh. For any Rabbi to use a word not found in Scripture, to define a concept found there carries some authority because of their training (again, IMO). But I'm also cautious applying those ideas back to Scripture. If it's not found in the Hebrew OT, I won't add it to the Hebrew OT. I sound like I'm contradicting myself. It's like an object lesson your pastor uses. It may clarify your understanding of Scripture, but it's not Scripture itself. That's how I feel about the Talmud. I feel the words and interpretations of people who have devoted their lives to studying and interpreting and applying and understanding the Scripture contain value.

[Scott Hutchinson]

Originally Posted by TJJJ

Scott,


Pay em BOTH!

Ok I got some birthday money I'll share it with these folks.

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by nahkoe

That's not the word shekinah. That's shakan. Shakeniah is used as a proper name 10 times. It means "intimate with Jehovah". Shekinah is strictly a Talmudic word meaning "presence of God". Shekinah itself is not in the Hebrew OT. The concept, of course, is.

See my earlier post on Hebrew stem words.

Oh! You did.

Yes, it all depends on how precise you want to be. Some folks take the "intimate with Jehovah" idea and reach bizarre conclusions. That may be inevitable give: 1) The fallen nature of man... and 2) The idea that is conveyed by the stem word meaning to "abide with..."

It seems to almost have a similar meaning as the modern English phrase, "To live with..." When a man says he "lives with..." a woman there is cohabitation being expressed and intimacy is implied.

Such a meaning is not intended when someone says, "God dwells in my home..." Or the words of Jesus in John 14:2-3, for that matter. The fact that some folks have taken their fundamentalism to extremes shouldn't cause us to shy away from exploring the many facets of the original language, IMHO.

[*AQuietPlace*]

Originally Posted by pelathais

The fact that some folks have taken their fundamentalism to extremes

Could you explain this a little more?