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  #1  
Old 07-03-2007, 08:39 PM
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Scott Hutchinson Scott Hutchinson is offline
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The Husband of one wife could mean a one woman man.
Also if a man's wife fell into adultery ,he being the innocent party could remarry only in The Lord , I wouldn't feel such a one would be excluded from the office of Bishop or the eldership.
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  #2  
Old 07-03-2007, 08:52 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson View Post
The Husband of one wife could mean a one woman man.
Also if a man's wife fell into adultery ,he being the innocent party could remarry only in The Lord , I wouldn't feel such a one would be excluded from the office of Bishop or the eldership.
I've heard that it meant a one woman man before.

As far as remarriage after a divorce, that varies from church to church and from district to district. Often it is based on "who you know", not principle.

The Jews had a very liberal policy on who could divorce and then remarry based on Deut 24:1-2 which was pretty loosely interpreted in the first century (and maybe even in the church) as:
1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favor in his eyes, because he hath found some unbecoming thing in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. 2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.
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  #3  
Old 07-05-2007, 09:11 AM
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Originally Posted by Sam View Post
I've heard that it meant a one woman man before.

As far as remarriage after a divorce, that varies from church to church and from district to district. Often it is based on "who you know", not principle.

The Jews had a very liberal policy on who could divorce and then remarry based on Deut 24:1-2 which was pretty loosely interpreted in the first century (and maybe even in the church) as:
1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favor in his eyes, because he hath found some unbecoming thing in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. 2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.
But we know that Jesus didn't teach it that way. He said that unless the divorce was for the cause of fornication (which may not be the same thing as adultery) anyone who marries someone else after getting divorced is committing adultery and anyone who marries a divorced person causes that person to commit adultery.
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Old 07-03-2007, 08:43 PM
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Well a deacon was an important office in The NT. church ,but it wasn't the same role as a Bishop though was it ?
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  #5  
Old 07-03-2007, 08:49 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson View Post

Can a woman be a Pastor of a local assembly ?

N O !





It this scriptural or agains't scripture?



AGAINST





Does the Bible permit or forbid a woman to oversee a local church ?




F O R B I D S





THIS

SHOULD

SETTLE

IT

ONCE

AND

FOR ALL !







Bishop1
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  #6  
Old 07-04-2007, 07:41 PM
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Scott Hutchinson Scott Hutchinson is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Bishop1 View Post
F O R B I D S





THIS

SHOULD

SETTLE

IT

ONCE

AND

FOR ALL !







Bishop1
Please expound your position a little more, teach us from the word your viewpoint.
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  #7  
Old 07-04-2007, 07:39 PM
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Here is a question in the OT. why didn't women serve in the priesthood ?
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  #8  
Old 07-04-2007, 11:09 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson View Post
Here is a question in the OT. why didn't women serve in the priesthood ?
Why didn't men from any other tribe than the Levites serve in the priesthood?
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  #9  
Old 07-04-2007, 07:55 PM
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Have fun watching the fireworks.
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  #10  
Old 07-04-2007, 07:56 PM
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Scott Hutchinson Scott Hutchinson is offline
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What did Paul mean when He said he did not allow a woman to ursurp a man ?
Perhaps someone has some insight on that verse.
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