Quote:
Originally Posted by Israelarb
Hey everyone, so I'm working on translating short passages from greek and bumped in to this one.
καὶ ἐβαπτίζοντο ὑπ᾽ αὐτοῦ ἐν τῷ Ἰορδάνῃ.
It translates as
"And they were being baptized in the Jordan."
I know that if there is a preposition for a word in the genitive you are suppose to exclude the word "of" and let the preposition do it's job, but does the same apply with the dative? Do I exclude the word "to" and not phrase it, "in to the Jordan," since there is a preposition there already in other cases similar to this one? In other words does the preposition before the object in the dative cancel out the dative's implied preposition?
Thanks in advanced!
P.S. Let me know if the question isn't clear enough. I know it might sound confusing the way I worded it.
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I'm not sure it actually matters, translating the implied preposition based on the case would simply provide a "double emphasis", I think.
A few others here actively work with and are fluent in Greek, Evangelist Benincasa, Scott Pita, and a few others. They'd be more informed.