Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theology!

[KWSS1976]

I am not trying to be hard here but come on guys it reads as it reads real simple...

[Sam]

Originally Posted by KWSS1976

I am not trying to be hard here but come on guys it reads as it reads real simple...

Here's how it reads in the KJV
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

Notice that in our printed copies the word "given" is in italics which means it is not in the original but has been supplied by the English translators.

The verse could read:
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

The Holy Ghost was not yet?
What does that mean?
The Holy Ghost did not yet exist?
Can't be, He's called the eternal Spirit and He hovered over the waters in Genesis 1. He's always been.

It must mean something else.
In my opinion it means that the time of the universal availability and outpouring of the Holy Spirit had not yet arrived. His activity had been limited before but after the death of Jesus He would be universally available.

[Sam]

Originally Posted by Sam

Here's how it reads in the KJV
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

Notice that in our printed copies the word "given" is in italics which means it is not in the original but has been supplied by the English translators.

The verse could read:
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

The Holy Ghost was not yet?
What does that mean?
The Holy Ghost did not yet exist?
Can't be, He's called the eternal Spirit and He hovered over the waters in Genesis 1. He's always been.

It must mean something else.
In my opinion it means that the time of the universal availability and outpouring of the Holy Spirit had not yet arrived. His activity had been limited before but after the death of Jesus He would be universally available.

700 years BC the Prophet Joel prophesied of a time when God would pour His Spirit out upon all flesh. That time had not yet arrived when Jesus spoke those words in John chapter 7, but the time was certainly drawing near.

[StillStanding]

I believe the "Holy Ghost" in Elizabeth was the manifestation of God himself. The Holy Ghost has always existed.

The Holy Ghost in Acts, was the "outpouring" which was accompanied with tongues, which had a beginning.

[staysharp]

In my opinion it means that the time of the universal availability and outpouring of the Holy Spirit had not yet arrived. His activity had been limited before but after the death of Jesus He would be universally available.

I agree with you...the universality of the Holy Spirit was confined in part to the restrictions of the law prior to Christ.

However, we must never forget the purpose of this universal outpouring and that is to "testify" of Christ. Any spirit which does not bear "Christlike" fruit is not the Spirit of God.

[deltaguitar]

Originally Posted by staysharp

I agree with you...the universality of the Holy Spirit was confined in part to the restrictions of the law prior to Christ.

However, we must never forget the purpose of this universal outpouring and that is to "testify" of Christ. Any spirit which does not bear "Christlike" fruit is not the Spirit of God.

Now that will preach!

[KWSS1976]

So it all boils down to elizabeth really did not have the holyghost even though the bible tells us she did and john chapter 7 says she could not have had it...

[StillStanding]

Originally Posted by KWSS1976

So it all boils down to elizabeth really did not have the holyghost even though the bible tells us she did and john chapter 7 says she could not have had it...

Context!!

[KWSS1976]

Well it read as it reads either elizabeth had it or she did not and somethng is not accurate either luke scripture or john scripture

[KWSS1976]

Mr Steinway how would you explain John 7:39?