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Old 12-28-2011, 11:23 AM
onefaith2 onefaith2 is offline
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Re: The Lord’s Supper or the Eucharist?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Aquila View Post
Consider:
Matthew 26:17-28
17Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?
18And he said, Go into the city to such a man, and say unto him, The Master saith, My time is at hand; I will keep the passover at thy house with my disciples.
19And the disciples did as Jesus had appointed them; and they made ready the passover.
20Now when the even was come, he sat down with the twelve.
21And as they did eat, he said, Verily I say unto you, that one of you shall betray me.
22And they were exceeding sorrowful, and began every one of them to say unto him, Lord, is it I?
23And he answered and said, He that dippeth his hand with me in the dish, the same shall betray me.
24The Son of man goeth as it is written of him: but woe unto that man by whom the Son of man is betrayed! it had been good for that man if he had not been born.
25Then Judas, which betrayed him, answered and said, Master, is it I? He said unto him, Thou hast said.
26And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body.
27And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it;
28For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
It was a Passover Seder.
Matthew puts in on Nisan 15 while John does not. However the Eucharist was spotlighted only on the bread and the wine. The Lamb meat was not blessed as the body of the lord neither was any other food. He said, THIS ye do in remembrance of me. (He said nothing of keeping the passover feast to remember him)

While the setting may or may not be the Seder, there is no evidence that the New testament teaches it as a feast.

The point is to cross over out of Jewish tradition as Paul indicated. That is why I believe the Bible stresses the Lord's supper to be bread and wine only, not meant to be a meal or feast, like the Seder that you imply.

Why is it that John disagrees with Matthew regarding the date?
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