Polygamy

[Barb]

Originally Posted by Raven

Matt 19:8
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so .

Moses law allowed divorce although from the beginning it was not so and thus it is with polygamy. Is it a sin? Nowhere does it say such in the scripture but what did it say in the beginning?

Gen 2:21-24
21 And the Lord God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof;
22 And the rib, which the Lord God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man.
23 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.
24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

Notice, in the beginning it states wife as singular but a plurality would have nullified the "one flesh".

More mother-in-laws? Mines worth a million but I wouldn't give a nickle for another one!

Raven

Good point...

[Felicity]

Originally Posted by Raven

Notice, in the beginning it states wife as singular but a plurality would have nullified the "one flesh".

Exactly. I made this point to my husband on the way to church tonight. Go me!










Hehe.

[Cindy]

I think initially God used polygamy to continue the blood line. More wives, more children. Be fruitful and multiply. As for now I don't think it neccessary.

[pelathais]

It's been said that "monogamy is an agreement among powerful men to keep the peace."

[Hoovie]

Originally Posted by pelathais

It's been said that "monogamy is an agreement among powerful men to keep the peace."

Please don't tell me monogamy was not God's idea - I have worked hard at this thing!

[Hoovie]

Originally Posted by cneasttx

I think initially God used polygamy to continue the blood line. More wives, more children. Be fruitful and multiply. As for now I don't think it neccessary.

I think it is very neccessary for the reasons you give.

[The Mrs]

Oh my word! Is this thread

STILL GOING?!?

[Hoovie]

Originally Posted by The Mrs

Oh my word! Is this thread

STILL GOING?!?

it's a very delicate subject... lots of pros and cons to consider before delving in...

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by Stephen Hoover

Please don't tell me monogamy was not God's idea - I have worked hard at this thing!

Personally, I believe that "from the beginning" it was God's plan. However, everything that has happened since then has been the result of the way we humans have worked it out.

Sometimes we followed God's plan. Sometimes we didn't. And sometimes when we did, we did so in spite of the fact that God had any say in the matter.

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by Raven

Matt 19:8
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so .

Moses law allowed divorce although from the beginning it was not so and thus it is with polygamy. Is it a sin? Nowhere does it say such in the scripture but what did it say in the beginning?

There is a difference between polygamy and divorce. God's Law actually requires polygamy in specific circumstances. God's Law never commands divorce. So the two don't really compare.

Regarding the Law Jesus said,

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke or a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." (Matthew 5:17-18)

Throughout the Old Testament God's Law allows for and grants standards for polygamy, even requiring it in the case of a brother marrying his brother's childless widow. If the Law isn't abolished, polygamy cannot be considered a sin. We may accurately point out that it's unworkable in our society given human nature and that Paul admonished monogamy for church leaders, thereby raising the value of monogamy over polygamy. But this is hardly a law against polygamy making it a sin.

Then there is another issue regarding this. You brought up polygamy and divorce in comparison. Let's look at them side by side in application. Read Christ's words closely....

Matthew 19:8-9
8He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
9And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Let's say a man is married to three women. Is he to divorce them upon becoming a Christian though they have not committed adultery? Unless two of his wives commit adultery he is bound to remain married to them. By implication the NT here would have allowed for polygamy to continue.

Also you have to look at this text...

Matthew 22:23-32
"23. That same day the Sadducees, who say there is no resurrection, came to him with a question.
24. "Teacher," they said, "Moses told us that if a man dies without having children, his brother must marry the widow and have children for him.
25. Now there were seven brothers among us. The first one married and died, and since he had no children, he left his wife to his brother.
26. The same thing happened to the second and third brother, right on down to the seventh.
27. Finally, the woman died.
28. Now then, at the resurrection, whose wife will she be of the seven, since all of them were married to her?"
29. Jesus replied, "You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures or the power of God.
30. At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.
31. But about the resurrection of the dead--have you not read what God said to you,
32. `I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob' ? He is not the God of the dead but of the living."

Notice that this is a reference to the Law that required a brother to marry his brother's childless widow ( Deuteronomy 25:5). There is no exception for a married brother and so this was to be observed rather the second brother were already married or not. In our text Jesus is asked a question in context of this practice. Jesus could have renounced this practice entirely but instead Jesus chooses to allow it to stand, only answering the Sadducees questions. The implication is that Christ took no issue with the practice.

Then you have this text:

Matthew 25:1-12
1Then shall the kingdom of heaven be likened unto ten virgins, which took their lamps, and went forth to meet the bridegroom.
2And five of them were wise, and five were foolish.
3They that were foolish took their lamps, and took no oil with them:
4But the wise took oil in their vessels with their lamps.
5While the bridegroom tarried, they all slumbered and slept.
6And at midnight there was a cry made, Behold, the bridegroom cometh; go ye out to meet him.
7Then all those virgins arose, and trimmed their lamps.
8And the foolish said unto the wise, Give us of your oil; for our lamps are gone out.
9But the wise answered, saying, Not so; lest there be not enough for us and you: but go ye rather to them that sell, and buy for yourselves.
10And while they went to buy, the bridegroom came; and they that were ready went in with him to the marriage: and the door was shut.
11Afterward came also the other virgins, saying, Lord, Lord, open to us.
12But he answered and said, Verily I say unto you, I know you not.

We see here that Jesus uses this parable to make a point regarding the Kingdom of Heaven. But there is something very interesting about this passage...there's no bride! Or...is there? It's interesting to note that the ten waiting for the bridegroom (Christ) are specifically identified as "virgins", thus making them virtuous and worthy of marriage. We know that the bridegroom is representative of Christ. What about the five "wise virgins"? Are they not symbolic of the church, ie, the "bride"? The implication is that the five foolish virgins shamed their bridegroom by not being ready for him and were not allowed into the wedding, thus he denounces them from being his own. Here we see a parable taught by Jesus that may be using a polygamous marriage as an example of how he views the church and how the church is to prepare for her bridegroom. If the five wise vrigins are not representative of the church (the bride)...who are they and where is the bridegroom's bride?

Gen 2:21-24
21 And the Lord God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof;
22 And the rib, which the Lord God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man.
23 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.
24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

Notice, in the beginning it states wife as singular but a plurality would have nullified the "one flesh".

More mother-in-laws? Mines worth a million but I wouldn't give a nickle for another one!

Raven

Y'all know I'm just thinkin' here. I'm not advocating anything. But in reference to the "one flesh" scenerio...if two persons (a man and a woman) can be "one flesh"...why not three persons (a man and two wives)? Just a thought.