Apostolic But Not Believing Jesus is The Father?

[Sean]

Originally Posted by mfblume

You just worship Ishtarte or Ashtaroeth in Passover and I will serve God. How about that?

Mike just take 5 minutes to read this, thats all it took me.

It is better for you in your next debate against KJV only.(you may not want to use Easter as a point).....

https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=...78677474,d.cGU

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Sean

Mike just take 5 minutes to read this, thats all it took me.

It is better for you in your next debate against KJV only.(you may not want to use Easter as a point).....

https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=...78677474,d.cGU

What, read that commentary???? You violate your own arguments!


Sorry, Sean. PASCHA's definition says nothing about all this theory that Herod was celebrating Ishtarte. That is an excuse to think the KJV was inspired by God when the translators chose EASTER over PASSOVER as much as Paul and Peter were inspired of God. And I reject that paganizing excuse for passover. But there is nothing in the GREEK WORD PASCHA that would warrant the KJV translators for CHANGING the word to EASTER instead of PASSOVER. The word means PASSOVER.

[jfrog]

Originally Posted by mfblume

What, read that commentary???? You violate your own arguments!


Sorry, Sean. PASCHA's definition says nothing about all this theory that Herod was celebrating Ishtarte. That is an excuse to think the KJV was inspired by God when the translators chose EASTER over PASSOVER as much as Paul and Peter were inspired of God. And I reject that paganizing excuse for passover. But there is nothing in the GREEK WORD PASCHA that would warrant the KJV translators for CHANGING the word to EASTER instead of PASSOVER. The word means PASSOVER.

How about context? The best way to know the meaning of a word is context.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by jfrog

How about context? The best way to know the meaning of a word is context.

Amen. That determines the narrowed down version of the varied definitions available. But definition cannot be disregarded. The story of Herod implies nothing about Easter instead of passover.

Jerusalem was under Passover Law.

Acts 12:3-4 KJV And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) (4) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Since unleavened bread was part of Passover, and just mentioned in verse 11 before pascha was referred to, We know that the reference to the jewish feast in verse 11 is what verse 12 referred to with PASCHA. Since they days of unleavened bread were occurring when Herod sought to take Peter, and since Unleavened bread and firstfruits were all part of the PASSOVER feast, and because civil works could not occur during passover by HEBREW LAW, then Herod had to wait til after PASSOVER to deal with Peter.

Verse 11'as use of unleavened bread prove that pascha is passover.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Once again there is a HUGE difference between "They tested God" and "God was tempted to commit evil"

You guys are using one word that has several meanings as if it only has one meaning



ESV Psa 78:56 Yet they tested and rebelled against the Most High God and did not keep his testimonies,

This is the same as this?...The ESV is a FAKE translation(different word meanings)

Now I see the problem you have. First of all, it was proven that the word there means Tested by brother Blume.

Second of all, it's more accurate than a translation that was made in a language nobody but false prophets and shakesperean actors talk in.

When they translated the KJV the word Tempt Meant TEST. Research it

KJV Psa 78:56 Yet they tempted and provoked the most high God, and kept not his testimonies:



Thats not the same as Temptations of the flesh

Mat 26:41 Watch and pray that you may not enter into temptation. The spirit indeed is willing, but the flesh is weak."

Jas 1:12 Blessed is the man who endures temptation, because having been approved, he will receive the crown of life which the Lord has promised to those who love Him.
Jas 1:13 Let no one being tempted say, I am tempted from God. For God is not tempted by evils, and He tempts no one.
Jas 1:14 But each one is tempted by his lusts, being drawn away and seduced by them.

Testing God is not the same thing as Man being tempted by the flesh. God was not Tempted by his own flesh to sin.



That's not Greek. That's English

Tempt

peirasmós; gen. peirasmoú, masc. noun from peirázō (G3985), to make trial of, try, tempt. Trial, temptation, a putting to the test, spoken of persons only. When God is the agent, peirasmós is for the purpose of proving someone, never for the purpose of causing him to fall. If it is the devil who tempts, then it is for the purpose of causing one to fall.

(I) Generally, trial of one's character (1Pe_4:12, "to try [or prove] you"). By implication, trial of one's virtue, temptation, solicitation to sin, especially from Satan (Luk_4:13; 1Ti_6:9).

(II) Trial, temptation.
(A) A state of trial in which God brings His people through adversity and affliction in order to encourage and prove their faith and confidence in Him (Mat_6:13; Mat_26:41; Mar_14:38; Luk_8:13; Luk_11:4, "bring us not into a state of trial" [a.t.], lay not trials upon us; Luk_22:40, Luk_22:46; 1Co_10:13; Jam_1:2, Jam_1:12; 1Pe_1:6; 2Pe_2:9; Sept.: Deu_7:19; Deu_29:3). Hence used metonymically for adversity, affliction, sorrow (Luk_22:28; Act_20:19; Gal_4:14; Rev_3:10).

(B) In the opposite way, man "tempts" God by distrusting Him and complaining to Him (Heb_3:8 quoted from Psa_95:8; Sept.: Exo_17:7; Deu_9:22).


You are confusing "Being tempted to sin or do evil" with humans attempting to test God

Exo 20:20 Moses said to the people, "Do not fear, for God has come to test you, that the fear of him may be before you, that you may not sin."

Deu 6:16 "You shall not put the LORD your God to the test, as you tested him at Massah.

Prax, you said all that to say the KJV translators were wrong and you and your FAKE, ESV Bible and its modern day, copyright restricted author, using FAKE GREEK, is the "more accurate" translation.

....

Is that really the best argument you can come up with? Seriously?

Read this folks, your faith in your Bible is under attack .....https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=...78677474,d.cGU

Here is the TRUE translation, in your KJV...
Deuteronomy 6:16
16 Ye shall not tempt the Lord your God, as ye tempted him in Massah.

So the the KJV is contradicting itself saying God can't be tempted but you come alone and say he can?

tempt (tmpt)
v. tempt·ed, tempt·ing, tempts
v.tr.
1. To try to get (someone) to do wrong, especially by a promise of reward.
2. To be inviting or attractive to: A second helping tempted me. We refused the offer even though it tempted us. See Synonyms at lure.
3. To provoke or to risk provoking: Don't tempt fate.
4. To cause to be strongly disposed: He was tempted to walk out.

You should have given the link to that dictionary to see what you left out

1175-1225; Middle English < Latin temptāre to probe, feel, test, tempt
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/tempt

that's the problem with reading a bible translated into an outdated language

Exodus 20:20
20 And Moses said unto the people, Fear not: for God is come to prove you, and that his fear may be before your faces, that ye sin not.

prove
pro͞ov/Submit
verb
1.
demonstrate the truth or existence of (something) by evidence or argument.
"the concept is difficult to prove"
synonyms: show (to be true), demonstrate (the truth of), show beyond doubt, manifest, produce proof/evidence;

right PROVE. Same word is translated TEMPT in the KJV in other verses.

And once again the word Prove, before Modern English, meant TEST

1125-75; Middle English proven < Old French prover < Latin probāre to try, test, prove, approve, derivative of probus good.

But in our modern english Proving someone is not TEMPTING someone to sin

All other bibles, other than the Received Text bibles(KJV), are derived from a "counterfeit" Greek of two heretic authors...Westcott and Hort

ROFL...so you are a KJVO and a conspiracy theorist too?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Sean

Like I said Mike, you dont agree with the KJV bible and are trying to redefine the actual words by a COMMENTATORS" definition.....

Originally Posted by mfblume

No, they're not commentators. lol THEY ARE KJV HEBREW SCHOLARS. Now, answer again.

good grief.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Sean

Were your modern day scholars you use, part of the Recieved Text scholars in 1611 or are they from recent years of modern translators?

The Received Text was the GREEK NT only not the Hebrew OTW. And it was put together years earlier, NOT by the KJV translators. It was put together by men like Erasmus or Stephanus

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Sean

Like I said Mike, you did not live 500 years ago, nor your modern scholars.

These "nuckleheads" knew more than you will ever know about translating the Bible.

And your "KJV scholars" did not live 2000 years ago. The fact is words change over time and words used in the 1600s often have a different meaning today

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Sean

Yep, the T.R. was translated by men who were the cream of the crop to translate the Bible for the English speaking language, unlike Westcott and Hort of the 1800s

Sean, you really have no idea what you are talking about

The T.R. is NOT a Translation. It's a Greek Text compiled from late Greek Manuscripts by a person, not a committee, and the one the KJV New testament was translated from was done years earlier by Stephanus

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Sean

Sure I do, the KJV translators spoke of a PAGAN HOLIDAY when the used "easter" there, no doubt.




Like I said, you have no TRUE Bible, in your mind, words are up for grabs.

You REALLY don't know what you are talking about.

It was the Passove

Act 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
Act 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Unleavened Bread was Jewish not Pagan.

Jews Celebrate Passover around the time Christians today celebrate Easter. It is a bad translation

The actual greek word is Pascha meaning "Pass over"