Quote:
Originally Posted by mfblume
No. No man saw God at any time. They saw what GOD MANIFESTED IN, but never actually saw God. You cannot see God since He is everywhere present and is invisible.
What does this verse mean to you?
1 John 4:12 KJV No man hath seen God at any time. ..
Are you saying John wrote a lie? If not, what did John mean? |
In
John 1:1-18 and
1 John 1:1-4, the Apostle talks about the Word/Logos/Memra/Angel/Messenger that was in the beginning and who was with God and was God. He describes the Word as the agent of creation of all things that are made. He goes on to say that the Word was in the world and the world was made by Him but the world knew/recognized Him not. He said the Word became flesh and dwelt among us. He said that he and others had seen, touched, watched and interacted with this Word. Then in verse 18 of
John 1 he said, "No man has ever seen God at any time; the only unique Son, or the only begotten God, Who is in the bosom [in the intimate presence] of the Father, He has declared Him [He has revealed Him and brought Him out where He can be seen; He has interpreted Him and He has made Him known]."
God existed as far back as we can know as an omnipresent, eternal, invisible, transcendent Spirit and as a local, visible, immanent, touchable persona known as the Word/Logos/Memra/Angel/Messenger
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