Crossdressing...Just how does a woman participate?

[LUKE2447]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

The NT is NOT based on the OT. You are confusing corrolation with causation. That is a logical fallacy. There are repeated elements of the OT in the NT. Murder is still wrong. But the NT is a New Testament, a New covenant, a new Law. The Law of Love.

PRax you don't listen righteousness is NOT COVENANT BOUND but exists beyond covenants. Of course a new covenant is a NEW covenant. LOL. The principles are the same and exist not because it is a covenant but natural law of existance which is the result of God's expression and order given creation. sheeesh

We look to the NT. We can, I believe, look at OT versions of the moral laws of God repeated in the NT for clarity, but beside that we can't just go to the Law and decide which laws apply to us today and which do not.

uhhh so Deut 22:5 is not applicable for today?

The word didactic means "teaching"..not sure you knew that or not. The word didactic does not mean "explicit". The bible teachings things both explicitly and implicitly

yes and it is not teaching on the subject exaclty like Deut 22:5. Didactic can be used according to the context given. People like James White and others use this term just like I did in context of it being taught directly by his word usage with clear reference.

For example the bible never says "Speaking in tongues is the evidence of the baptism of the Holy Ghost", yet that never stopped Pentecostals from accepting implied teaching on the subject.

Totally agree and James White argued didactic teaching which was referenced as direct by his usage as a doctrine to be known clearly taught and Bernard argued implied teaching.