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Old 11-15-2013, 12:34 AM
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Re: Does The Baptizor Impute The Name Of Jesus?

From Renee's post in the General Debate Forum regarding the authenticity of Matthew 28:19:

Acts 22:16 comes down to one thing: the verb

"calling upon" is from the verb epikaleomai

It can have several, very related meanings, depending on context. Anything from having a surname applied/being named after someone, to having a name invoked upon/over someone, all the way up to making an appeal for someone, by name, to draw near and help on behalf of the caller.

It's from epi, a superimposition meaning on, over, or above

and

kaleo meaning to call, to call aloud/utter in a loud voice, to invite, to salute by name, to give and/or receive a name.

It's obvious then that yes, it does matter that one speaks out loud (as opposed to the silent baptism some espouse) and yes, since it does matter what the name of the Lord is (and not just the authority inherent to that name), it very much matters WHO is being called upon at the baptism.

While there may be many variants to the name (e.g. Jesus, Yeshua, Yehoshua, Yesu, even Issa), and while some may preface the name with Lord, it nonetheless means that Jesus of Nazareth, the only begotten Son of God, must be verbally invoked, called upon, and invited to draw near in the baptism, since and because the whole family in heaven and on earth is surnamed after the Lord Jesus Christ (Ephesians 3:14:15).

And for what end? To wash away sins.

For further consideration, here is Gill's Commentary:


Quote:
calling on the name of the Lord; the name of the Lord is not only to be used by the administrator of baptism in the performance of it; but it should be called upon by the person who submits to it, both before and at the administration of it, for the presence of Christ in it; and this invocation of the name of the Lord in baptism, signifies an exercise of faith in Christ at this time, a profession of him, and obedience to him.
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