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  #11  
Old 03-10-2014, 10:01 PM
RJR RJR is offline
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Re: Isn’t John 3:5 and Mathew 3:11 the same?

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Originally Posted by justlookin View Post
I'm not suggesting that water baptism isn't important, my point is that only the Spirit births Spirit, per Jesus Himself. Peter taught water baptism by his question "can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?", but Peter wasn't suggesting water baptism was necessary for birth of the Spirit in Cornelius' household for that had occurred earlier.

I ask you again, are you suggesting that Spirit birth doesn't produce a child of God without also the birth of water, i.e, baptism? If so, what does the birth of the Spirit produce, if not a child of God, and does your answer agree with Jesus teaching concerning Spirit birth?
I have already answered your question but will be glad to do it again. Lets do this one question at a time. I will be happy to ask my questions also one at a time. And will answer your questions one at a time.

1. 1John 5:8 says there is three that bear witness in earth and it was the Spirit the water and the blood and these three agree in one. What is the one that these essential applications or ingredients agree?
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  #12  
Old 03-10-2014, 10:03 PM
justlookin justlookin is offline
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Re: Isn’t John 3:5 and Mathew 3:11 the same?

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Originally Posted by RJR View Post
I have already answered your question but will be glad to do it again. Lets do this one question at a time. I will be happy to ask my questions also one at a time.

1. 1John 5:8 says there is three that bear witness in earth and it was the Spirit the water and the blood and these three agree in one. What is the one that these essential applications or ingredients agree?
You asked a question, you didn't answer my question.

I'll stop asking.
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  #13  
Old 03-10-2014, 10:09 PM
RJR RJR is offline
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Re: Isn’t John 3:5 and Mathew 3:11 the same?

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Originally Posted by justlookin View Post
You asked a question, you didn't answer my question.

I'll stop asking.
No please do not quit. That is the easy thing to do. If you have something you think we ought to receive have the courage to stand behind it.

Ask me 1 question at a time and I will answer it and will then conclude with a question of my own. Go ahead...
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  #14  
Old 03-10-2014, 10:12 PM
justlookin justlookin is offline
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Re: Isn’t John 3:5 and Mathew 3:11 the same?

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Originally Posted by RJR View Post
No please do not quit. That is the easy thing to do. If you have something you think we ought to receive have the courage to stand behind it.

Ask me 1 question at a time and I will answer it and will then conclude with a question of my own. Go ahead...
I asked you the same question for several posts now. I'll try once more.

Are you suggesting that Spirit birth doesn't produce a child of God without also the birth of water, i.e, baptism? If so, what does the birth of the Spirit produce, if not a child of God, and does your answer agree with Jesus teaching concerning Spirit birth?
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  #15  
Old 03-10-2014, 11:03 PM
RJR RJR is offline
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Re: Isn’t John 3:5 and Mathew 3:11 the same?

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Originally Posted by justlookin View Post
I asked you the same question for several posts now. I'll try once more.

Are you suggesting that Spirit birth doesn't produce a child of God without also the birth of water, i.e, baptism? If so, what does the birth of the Spirit produce, if not a child of God, and does your answer agree with Jesus teaching concerning Spirit birth?
Answer: Cornelius would have been lost, as lost as two homosexual men kissing, without being baptized in Jesus name. Acts 11:15, stated the angel had instructed him he had to do what Peter told him to be saved. If you would have answered one of my questions above, you would have to answer yes to the question "Did Peter command Cornelius to be baptized?" The Bible said Cornelius salvation was based upon doing what Peter said. Without doubt, God knew that Cornelius would comply based on the very fact Cornelius already had God's attention, thus the arrangement to have Peter go to his house, nothing doubting. However if the infilling of the Spirit is all there was to one's new birth why any further instructions? Baptism was not an added instruction to bring about any other additional virtue beyond one's new birth. There would be absolutely no need of baptism if your claim is valid. To command Cornelius to be baptized would be akin to asking Cornelius to go be born of his mother. Acts 10:47, Peter said "can any man forbid water...And he commanded him to be baptized. He did not suggest, kindly encourage, it was an imperative. Why because it fits the pattern of water and spirit new birth, John 3:5, Acts 2:38, Acts 8:15-16, Acts 19:5-6, Rom 6:3-4, 1 John 5:8!

Question: based on 1Jn 5:8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

Since there are three that bear witness in earth, the water, the Spirit, and the blood, and these three agree in one. What do these three agree in, in other words what is the one?

Last edited by RJR; 03-10-2014 at 11:13 PM.
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  #16  
Old 03-10-2014, 11:15 PM
justlookin justlookin is offline
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Re: Isn’t John 3:5 and Mathew 3:11 the same?

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Originally Posted by RJR View Post
Answer: Cornelius would have been lost, as lost as two homosexual men kissing, without being baptized in Jesus name. Acts 11:15, stated the angel had instructed him he had to do what Peter told him to be saved. If you would have answered one of my questions above, you would have to answer yes to the question "Did Peter command Cornelius to be baptized?" The Bible said Cornelius salvation was based upon doing what Peter said. Without doubt, God knew that Cornelius would comply based on the very fact Cornelius already had God's attention, thus the arrangement to have Peter go to his house, nothing doubting. However if the infilling of the Spirit is all there was to one's new birth why any further instructions? Baptism was not an added instruction to bring about any other additional virtue beyond one's new birth. There would be absolutely no need of baptism if your claim is valid. To command Cornelius to be baptized would be akin to asking Cornelius to go be born of his mother. Acts 10:47, Peter said "can any man forbid water...And he commanded him to be baptized. He did not suggest, kindly encourage, it was an imperative. Why because it fits the pattern of water and spirit new birth, John 3:5, Acts 2:38, Acts 8:15-16, Acts 19:5-6, Rom 6:3-4, 1 John 5:8!

Question: based on 1Jn 5:8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

Since there are three that bear witness in earth, the water, the Spirit, and the blood, and these three agree in one. What do these three agree in, in other words what is the one?
You again didn't answer my question. I didn't ask you about the salvation of Cornelius. Honestly, I don't have time for this.

Thanks for your participation.
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  #17  
Old 03-10-2014, 11:26 PM
RJR RJR is offline
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Re: Isn’t John 3:5 and Mathew 3:11 the same?

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Originally Posted by justlookin View Post
I asked you the same question for several posts now. I'll try once more.

Are you suggesting that Spirit birth doesn't produce a child of God without also the birth of water, i.e, baptism? If so, what does the birth of the Spirit produce, if not a child of God, and does your answer agree with Jesus teaching concerning Spirit birth?
I am saying that there is more to one being born again than receiving the Holy Ghost as in the experience of Cornelius. If that is not the example you were referencing please show me which passage you had in mind.

I thought you had something we needed? Oh, and don't forget 1John 5:8!

Last edited by RJR; 03-10-2014 at 11:30 PM.
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