Quote:
Originally Posted by Aquila
Please define "mode of being" and describe where the concept is explained in the Bible.
Please read that Scripture... slowly.
1 Tim. 2:5
For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, THE MAN Christ Jesus. How did this "man", Christ Jesus, describe His own oneness with the Father?
John 10:38
38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. (KJV) Note, there are plenty of ways in the ancient language wherein Jesus could have said, "I am the Father and the Father is me." However, this is NOT what Jesus says. Jesus says, "the Father is IN me, and I IN him". This doesn't speak of sameness... it draws clear distinction through personal pronouns and uses terms that clearly denote mutual indwelling. |
He said
"Before Abraham was I AM". He was and is
I AM. That means he was and is the Elohim of Abraham, Issac, and Jacob. He was there when Abe was there. He was there when Issac was there. He was there when Jacob was there. He was there when Moses was there......
In his humanity this same Father dwells within him as the Spirit dwells in us. That does not make us the Father.
When Jesus was on Earth Jesus was
STILL IN HEAVEN.
13And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven,
even the Son of man which is in heaven. John 3:13
See what I mean? It was him who came. It was him who stayed!
In one mode of being he was/is the Eternal Father. In another mode of being he is the Son of man.
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