Did God become his own son?

[Fionn mac Cumh]

Originally Posted by Originalist

Have you ever considered comparing John 1:1-2 with I John 1:1-2?

The latter is a deeper explanation of the former and pretty much tells us the context of "with" and "Word".

Do you agree that the "word" is logos in the Greek as all theologians do? Logos in Greek means a word, speech, divine utterance, analogy. It never has meant a "person" of the trinity.

Also no one can explain to me how the second "person" in the trinity is called son. How can a son be co-equal and co-eternal? How does the term son not denote a birth thus rendering the co-eternal thing mute? How can a son be submissive to the father and be co-equal? Son before his birth was Logos. After the birth he was the messiah.