Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by FlamingZword

These guys were closer to the time of the Apostles than you or me.
and they disagree with you.

Papias 150-170 AD “Matthew composed the words in the Hebrew dialect, and each translated as he was able.”

Ireneus 170 AD “Matthew also issued a written Gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect.”

Clement of Alexandria 150 AD -215 AD “Which also is written in the gospel according to the Hebrews: He who marveled shall reign, and he who reigned shall rest.”

Origen 210 AD “The first [Gospel] is written according to Matthew, the same that was once a tax collector, but afterwards an apostle of Jesus Christ who having published it for the Jewish believers, wrote it in Hebrew.”

Epiphanius 370 AD “They [The Nazarenes] have the Gospel according to Matthew quite complete in Hebrew, for this Gospel is certainly still preserved among them as it was first written, in Hebrew letters.”

Jerome 382 AD “Matthew, who is also Levi, and from a tax collector came to be an Apostle first of all evangelists composed a Gospel of Christ in Judea in the Hebrew language and letters, for the benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed, who translated it into Greek is not sufficiently ascertained. Furthermore, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the library at Caesarea, which the martyr Pamphilus so diligently collected.”

Isho'dad 850 AD “His [Matthew's] book was in existence in Caesarea of Palestine, and everyone acknowledges that he wrote it with his hands in Hebrew.” [Isho'dad Commentary on the Gospels]

Sorry, but Hebrew wasn't the lingua franca in the First Century A.D.. Also, it seems that no one can answer my questions, but feel to produce Ireneus and friends to reinforce their argument. Oh, Clement of Alexandria said "according to the Hebrews" meaning it was directed the the Judeans. So, maybe you should scrap Clement, he never actually said Matthew was written in the Hebrew language. Papias is often taken to be saying that Matthew made his notes in Aramaic, and his scribes complied Matthew in Greek. But, my questions remain and need some answers. Yet, the Hebrew Matthew crew cannot answer why the name of "Yeshua" or Ieshua was lost? If we had an Aramaic original and the Judeans translated it into Greek, what happened to Yeshua? Papias says that it was scribed, so the scribes are messing up the name and Matthew hasn't a clue? Also Matthew quotes the LXX? Oh, no, he doesn't quote the LXX, but he quotes what???? What Aramaic OT did he quote from? Targums? Some other unknown Hebrew OT? Also why is Emmanuel translated for us? Sorry, but the so called Church fathers save doesn't answer questions, but just create more.