Quote:
Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa
Brother, I'm sorry you feel that is what I'm doing.
Brother it is an outline on how the ministers are to conduct themselves. It is rules that the apostle laid down. 1 Timothy 3:2 Paul states that the man must be blameless the husband of one wife. His blamelessness is directly tied to the faithfulness to his wife. If it means plural wives, then Paul is saying that being blameless is not having plural wives? Pretty confusing if you hang on to the plurality of wives view of this verse. They had to be married because the ruling and overseeing of the home is what was used by Paul as an indicator on how they would oversee the congregation. Pretty simple. |
Why is "blameless" only tied to "husband of one wife"? Those are obviously two different qualifications being listed. How does never having been married make one not "blameless"?
Furthermore, "ruling well in his own household" is referring directly to children. So by your rule, one must have children to be a bishop?
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