Quote:
Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa
Just so the KJV Nazis don’t get upset, the best way to explain the EIS “for” is with Matthew 26:28. Jesus’ blood wasn’t shed because their sins were already remitted. His blood is for the remittance. Therefore Acts 2:38 follows this.
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Could it be argued that repentance and baptism in the name of Jesus, is because of what Jesus did to remit sins, per allignmemt w Matt.26:28 “blood purchase”?