Being in the form of God, thought it not robbery

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by TGBTG

To me, your explanation sounds more like Arianism.

Both trinitarianism and Arianism postulate Christ was a preincarnate being existing in a divine "form of God" who then emptied himself of visible divine glory and power in order to become human.

My explanation is actually the most thoroughly Oneness explanation, because it understands Christ AS ALREADY INCARNATE. Christ is, after all, a human. The term Christ is a reference to the descendant of David, and therefore the term presupposes human existence and nature. It MAKES NO THEOLOGICAL SENSE to speak of Christ pre existing the Incarnation then becoming human.

My understanding and explanation of the passage keeps it in context - the attitude held by the MAN from Galilee who was exalted upon His resurrection and ascension. THAT is Bible doctrine.

So no, my explanation is as far from Arianism as it is from trinitarianism.