Quote:
Originally Posted by Esaias
Isn't John 4:1-2 a direct reference to events described in John 3:22-26? If so, it means Jesus was not Himself personally baptizing in ch 3, would it not?
Chapter 4
1 When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John,
2 (Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,) |
In v 2, is "his disciples" the
object of "baptized"? Or is it a subject in the second phrase (making it an ellipsis meaning " but His disciples {did baptize})?
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