Most complex explanation of the Godhead ever!

[1ofthechosen]

Originally Posted by Costeon

First, in Greek it is "an angel of God" (angelos tou theou) not "the angel of God" (ho angelos tou theou), the KJV's translation notwithstanding. And so modern translations render this "an angel."

Second, "of God" is directly modified by "the" and the phrase "to whom I belong and whom I serve" (NKJV); thus "an angel of the God to whom I belong and whom I serve." In short, this is one angel of the multitudes in God's service who was sent to comfort Paul; it is not referring at all to the Angel of Yahweh who appears in the OT.

The Angel of the LORD is conspicuously absent from the NT. I believe Elder Drysdale et al would say the reason this is so is that the One who appeared in the OT as the Angel of LORD, i.e., the One who was the Word-Image of God and had a celestial body in the OT was the One who became incarnate as the Son of God. The One who had a celestial body now has a fleshly body.

You broke this down very clear brother. I appreciate it also, because where the KJV was foggy to my understanding you clarified. I can see that. I knew there was no way post incarnation the Son of God would be in Angelic form. It was the unclearness in the translation that made me say it. Because most claim they don't know what not who the Angel of the Lord theophany is. So I wanted to make sure we clarified there's no appearances after the glorification of Jesus.

I see it, I'm agreeing more and more with Elder Drysdales theory.