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Re: Daniel's 70th week
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Originally Posted by Ehud
I tend to take things quite literally unless given a reason not to and readily admit I could be taking it *too* literally. However, Luke identifies those present as Jews in verse 5, and never seems to stray. I have assumed -- yes, that thing I should know better than to do -- that they were all gathered for Pentecost. Is there any reason gentiles would have been a part of that gathering other than by coincidence? (Legitimately asking because I don't know the answer to that question.)
Also, the footnote in my ESV tells me that the murmuring in Acts 6:1 was being done by Hellenists, or Greek-speaking Jews.
As an aside, if Acts 10 isn't the initial offering of salvation to the gentiles, what purpose did Peter's vision serve?
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Exactly, and simple to the point. What on earth was the purpose was the vision of Peter to go to a Noahide. If uncircumcised Romans were already speaking in tongues in Acts 2?
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"all experience hath shewn, that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable, than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed."
~Declaration of Independence
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