My next question is have somehow the Greek rules changed over the years?
Its my understanding that Tyndale first gave us a Bible from Greek into English.
This is supposed to be his translation.
https://www.faithofgod.net/WTNT/john_1.html
John 1:1
¶ In the beginning was that word, and that word was with god: and
god was that word.
Also the first Bible in English was actually translated from Latin by Wycliffe. This was several hundred years I believe before Tyndale.
http://wesley.nnu.edu/fileadmin/impo...cliffe/Joh.txt
1 In the bigynnyng was the word, and the word was at God, and God was the word.
Both these translations were far earlier than the English of today.
So for hundreds of years English speaking people owned Bibles that gave us
GOD WAS THE WORD
So how did that happen?
Online it is said Tyndale knew 7 languages and was counted as a genius in his time.
Did he in actuality NOT understand the Greek?
Could the rules whereby men translate have changed over the years?
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