An Exhortation

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by votivesoul

You're welcome.

However, your second statement above is misleading. They are not both names. One is a name (Yeshua - Aramaic, Yehoshua - Hebrew), the other is not (yeshuah).

However, they are both derived from yasha, but not in the way you might be thinking.

The feminine noun yeshuah comes directly from yasha. However, the part of the name Yeshua/Yehoshua that derives from yasha is not the beginning portion of the name, i.e. Ye-. That part derives from the Tetragrammaton, i.e. YHVH. The part of the name Yeshua/Yehoshua that derives from yasha is the -shua part.

So, while closely related, and derived from the same root word in Hebrew, the name Yeshua/Yehoshua and the feminine noun yeshuah are not the same words. As such, Isaiah 12:2 cannot be reworded to say, God is my Jesus/YHVH has become my Jesus.


Furthermore, the verb for "has become" is in the imperfect, meaning past tense. However, in Post #40, you wrote:



If this statement quoted directly above is true, then it cannot follow that YHVH has become my Jesus, because that would mean that at some time in the past, YHVH was not Jesus, and Jesus was not YHVH, until such a time in the past that YHVH became Jesus, and vice versa.

“Behold, God (El) is my salvation (Yeshua)” can literally be translated into English as “Behold, God is my Jesus.”The Lord (JAH) Jehovah (YHWH) is become my salvation (Yeshua) would be - “The Lord Jehovah is become my Jesus.”

“Has become” appears to me as pertaining to the flesh.

The one and only “YHWH Elohim” of Deut 6:4 became our Salvation in His NT revelation of Jesus Christ.

Psalm 38:22 “Come quickly to help me, O Lord my savior.” The employment of the abstract "salvation" for the concrete "Savior" is extremely common.

The “mystery” in I Timothy 3:16, is a truth that was before unknown but now is being revealed. Jesus is God was not only made knowable or visible, but was also, literally, “God manifest in the flesh” - revealed in human form.

“Justified in the Spirit” means vindicated, proved. Therefore, this fulfills OT messianic prophecies. (Isaiah 9:6; Isaiah 43:11).

That isn't true. From the earliest accounts of Genesis, even before the Flood, people knew God's name:

Eve knew His name:

Genesis 4:1 (ESV),



God had appeared to them in theophany and "walked" with them in the Garden in the cool of the day (See Genesis 3:8). They could seem an image of Him, that is, a physical representation, i.e. a body that could walk.

YHVH appeared several times to Abram/Abraham, in angelic theophany, and in each instance, Abram/Abraham knew it was YHVH:

Genesis 12:7 (ESV),



This is the same YHVH that first spoke to Abram and told him to leave his father's house behind (Genesis 12:1). Note the text carefully: YHVH appeared to Abram. Abram could see YHVH in a manifested form (the Hebrew word for "appeared" in the text means to see).

This happens again in Genesis 17:1-5, where God appears to Abram in angelic theophany and visits with him, and speaks to him, and Abram literally bows before Him at His "feet". It is here that God changes Abram's name to Abraham.

And again, in the plains of Mamre, YHVH appears in theophany, and Abraham knows exactly Who it is (See Genesis 18).

Later, when Abraham goes to sacrifice Isaac on the mountain, in angelic theophany, that is, in the body of a human, Abraham is stopped by the angel of YHVH:

Genesis 22:11 (ESV),



A few verses later, look what Abraham says:



Even Abraham's servant Eliezer knew the God of Abraham's name:



Time and space do not permit a full telling of the same things as above with Isaac (Genesis 26:24), and Jacob (Genesis 28:13).

And do not forget, perhaps most famous of all, how YHVH appears to Moses in the Burning Bush, as a bright, shining fire that did not burn. This, too, was an angelic theophany, and YHVH there declares His name.



God didn't need to tell Jacob. Jacob sorted it out for himself:

Genesis 32:30 (ESV),



Jacob knew with Whom he had wrestled. Peniel means "the face of God".

Now, look closely at Hosea's take on the same story:

Hosea 12:3-5,



Hosea knew that Jacob knew that the man with Whom he wrested was YHVH, albeit in angelic theophany.



The phrase, more literally rendered "in the name of the Father of me", means here "in the authority or power of", or "as a representative of", or even "with the credentials of". It does not show that Jesus is the name of the Father. The OT is quite clear that the name of God, Christ's Father, is YHVH (Granted, some prefer spelling It as YHWH, or Jehovah, or Yahweh, or etc. The point is, the name of God, Christ's Father, all throughout the OT, is yud-hey-vav-hey however anyone cares to translate It into English letters or say It according to English pronunciation).



You really don't have any Scripture to justify the above claims. As already shown, one claim is illogical, if your other claims, that is, about Isaiah 12:2 are true. Further, it isn't at all obvious that if someone says to me that he or she comes in his or her father's name, that that automatically means anything other than what I wrote above regarding the authority/power of, and etc.

“No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.” John 1:18

Gen 3:8....And they heard the voice of the LORD God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God amongst the trees of the garden

What was walking? His voice. Where was it walking? In the cool (literally, the wind) of the day.

“And I have declared to them Your name, and will declare it, that the love with which You loved Me may be in them, and I in them.” John 17:26

"Not merely a Son". You say that with what appears to be such spite. As if it is almost an accusation.



And...???

I affirm and believe Colossians 2:9 as much as anyone else, Oneness or otherwise.

Unfortunately, we can only read what we believe someone’s tone is. I simply made a statement. If you read it as spite, then that is your personal view.