Are we are under the commands of the first 5 books

[good samaritan]

Originally Posted by votivesoul

1 Corinthians 5:13 quotes from Deuteronomy, in 13:5, but also Deuteronomy 17:7, and Deuteronomy 24:7, all of which stipulate the same thing: removal of a wicked person from the assembly of Israel. Paul is very much indeed referring to this law in his approach to the fornicator, despite whatever OT contexts those quotes from Deuteronomy otherwise maintain. Several prominent commentaries clearly show this to be the case.

Here is a list:

https://biblehub.com/commentaries/1_...hians/5-13.htm

This is therefore, not us, or me, attempting to fit a square block in a round whole, such as you accuse.

Commentary is not the same as Gods word. Just because some agree on a view doesnt make it true. The context of those passages where not the same. To add, the law required for the guilty to be put to death. If we are under the law then do what the law says.

How do you suppose the otherwise ignorant Gentile Corinthians, so far removed from Jerusalem, ignorant of the Jewish laws and customs, would be so well-informed regarding Passover, that they'd easily understand the reference Paul makes above, if there was no celebrating of Passover in and among the Corinthians believers?

Nothing that Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 6 makes sense to anyone not well-versed in the Exodus and the keeping of Passover. In fact, there isn't even a point to be made to compare Christ to being our Passover Lamb, if Passover as a festival, was and is, forever done away with in the New Covenant.

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There was a large number of Jews all throughout the church. There is no doubt that much of the readers where Jews. Matter of fact the synagogues where some of the apostles target places to go preach the gospel. Gentiles where not being taught to keep the feast of Passover.

The Judaizers were attempting to circumcise the Galatian believers, as a token of the Old Covenant at Sinai, in order for them to be able to enter into the New Covenant. The belief was that Gentiles had to convert to Judaism first, by way of the Old Covenant requirements for Gentile proselytes, in order to then enter the New Covenant by way of faith in the Christ.

Paul's whole point of the letter to the Galatians is to show that Gentiles had no need of submitting themselves to the Old Covenant, since Christ had already welcomed them into the New.

It's not about whether the Torah of God is of no import or consequence, that is, that Gentile believers have a freehand in behaving any way they please.

I have not said anywhere we can behave anyway we please.

The problem here is that you believe we cannot have righteouness without the law. That is contrary to the apostles doctrine.

Romans 7:6
But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.

Romans 8:1
There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Ephesians 5:9
(For the fruit of the Spirit is in all goodness and righteousness and truth