Christ Did Not Send Me to Baptize?

[Joelel]

Originally Posted by TRFrance

Joelel, if youre going to appeal to the original Greek, you really should at least become armed with the facts when debating a topic like this. Praxeas is not referring simply to the word itself but to the grammar also.

The form of the word indicates its meaning in context. In greek each verb is either in the passive voice, active voice, or middle voice.

In the cases where baptism is spoken of, it is always in the active voice (such as "baptize them") , or passive voice (such as "be baptized [by someone else]")

It is NEVER in the middle voice , (such as "I baptize myself"). From examining the original Greek , its clear that none of the NT writers spoke this concept you're insisting on... that people can/should baptize themselves.

Please buddy, get your facts straight.

I said in an other post also,if you took them to the water and called on the name of the Lord as we are suppose to do with them and they jumped in the water,you would be baptizing them.What makes people think you must hold them or touch them ?