Baptism question for One-Steppers

[*AQuietPlace*]

Originally Posted by CC1

However let me ask you something about this scripture and your beliefs. Do you believe that water baptism is regenerative, that it washes away your sins?

I'm not really sure. I've always been taught that baptism is necessary for washing away the sins. That's why I'm studying this, to get an understanding for myself
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Originally Posted by freeatlast

I am a one stepper. I do believe eveery Christian should be baptized. 1 Pet 3:21 lets us know the water does not wash us, but rahter the blood, thru the reserection of Christ.

Major difference in one step vs three step theolgy. One steppers get baptized BECAUSE Christ has saved them thru the resurection of christ. BECAUSE they desire to proclaim their faith publicly.

Three steppers get batized to GET saved. Believing that it gives them new birth, all the while exclaiming loudly that they are NOT baptismal regenerations as are their Catholic counter parts.

So why do you think the verse states "Washing away your sins"?

Originally Posted by tbpew

I do not think that is what the Ethiopian Eunuch was thinking when he asked of Phillip: "Here is water, what hinders me from being baptised"?

Phillip established the enabling criteria by asking him a question.

AFTER the Eunuch answered by confirming that JESUS CHRIST is the SON of God....

they both went down into the water and Phillip baptised the Eunuch.

I do not believe that Phillip thought the water washed away sins.
I do not believe the Eunuch thought the water washed away sins.

I do believe they BOTH acknowledged that WATER was involved in their burial with the one who died for them.

1 John 5:8 invites us to consider the witness, to have understanding concerning: the spirit, the water, and the blood agreeing in one.

But, same question - what about how the verse I quoted is worded?

Originally Posted by pelathais

Why do you equate "washed away" with "remitted?"

Matthew 26:28
Romans 3:25
Hebrews 9:22

It's His blood that remits sins. Unless someone is being very careless, there is no shedding of blood at a baptism. And where there is no shedding of blood, there is no "remission."

Also we will notice that it is by having Paul "call on the name of the Lord" that the washing takes place, not baptism (1 Peter 3:21).

Why do I equate it with remitted? Because that's what I've been taught? Scriptures that have been used are Acts 2:38 - 'for the remission of sin', and the verse I quoted in my first post.

So, back to my original question - why does it say 'be baptized and wash away thy sins'?