Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam
David and the others that are heroes to us and who were anointed by God to write what has become our Bible were human. God never has used perfect people because he never had any to use.
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Amen. They weren't perfect people. But my question is that biblically, they violated no inherent sexual ethic of God. It appears that God allowed for their desires as long as they operated within the Law. Again, it would appear that God, at least in the Old Testament, isn't so much concerned with the sex act itself as we in our Puritanical culture might envision him as being. God is concerned with justice and how people treat their partners.
Biblically forbidden sex practices appear to be:
• Adultery – Sexual activity outside of the marriage covenant.
• Fornication – Indiscriminant and promiscuous sexual activity.
• Sodomy – Homosexual rape, male temple prostitution, and anal sex between males.
• Incest – Sexual activity with close relatives.
• Rape – Forced sexual activity with a woman.
• Bestiality – Sexual activity with animals.
• Pedophilia – Sexual activity with children.
• Harlotry – Sexual activity as a religious rite or for money.
• Lust – The desire to actually commit adultery.
The Bible appears to allow for the following sex practices:
• Monogamy – Marriage consisting of one man and one woman.
• Polygamy – Marriage consisting of one man and more than one woman.
• Concubines – Mistresses recognized within the marriage covenant.
• War Brides – Arranged marriage with female prisoners of war.
• Levirate Marriage – The marrying of a dead brother’s first wife, even if the living brother was already married.
• Servant Marriage – The arrangement of marriage between servants.
• Eunuchs – Celibates who cannot (or choose not to) copulate with the opposite gender.
• Erotic Literature & Poetry – Writings of an erotic nature (Song of Solomon).
• Erotic Entertainment – Erotic dancing (exemplified by the Shulamite and her erotic dance before her countrymen).
• Sexual Fantasy – Sexual thoughts about another (exemplified by the Shulamite and her Lover).
I understand that the NT is different. But again, it was written under the Roman Empire. In Rome things such as polygamy were illegal. So we don't see these issues in the first century. I can't help but wonder however, what if Rome hadn't prohibited the practices of the Jews? Would the NT be more like the OT?
Weird. LOL