To me, the question all this basically hinges on is this:
When exactly or at what point exactly did the Spirit become indwelling in the persons in scripture(in Acts), because a person can NOT inherit eternal life without the Spirit indwelling, because we are NOT His, according to this verse. (right?)
Romans 8:9 You, however, are controlled not by the sinful nature but by the Spirit, if the Spirit of God lives in you. And
if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Christ.
So the question is(1st, before discussing/deciding the necessity of tongues), did folks have the Spirit indwelling them before they recived the Spirit in
Acts 2, 8, 10, and 19? It seems to me no, or they would not have recived the Spirit if it was already in them. And
Rom. 8:9 reads we have to have His Spirit in us it to be His.
Maybe Im missing or overlooking something tho..?
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