Quote:
Originally Posted by mfblume
(roll eyes)
No matter what you argue the passages away with, God uses symbolism of jewelry to show that what He actually did, which was not with literal jewelry, was IN HIS EYES jewelry. He would not use ADULTERY to symbolize anything He did to show His love for Israel, like He sued Jewelry, because adultery is sinful. No one made anything LITERAL. Everyone has the grain of sense it takes to know Ezek 16 is speaking symbolically. BUT God would not use a sinful symbol to show his PURE and HOLY love for anyone, showing that wearing of jewelry is not sinful.
What is so ironic, is that the legalism behind self effort in standard keeping, that you abide by, produces a self righteous harshness reminiscent of the pharisees. All have noticed your arrogance, even those who agree with your standards. Your attitude speaks so loud we cannot hear you.
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Okay then Mike, neither would God reference Jewelry in connection w/ harlotry if it was soooo pleasing to Him. Why does He repeatedly connect it to harlotry? Will you apply the same criteria to
Jer. 4:30, Ezek. 23:40, as you do your other pet verses? I doubt it.
Final analysis: God repeatedly condems the literal ornamentation of His people in both the OT & NT.
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