Quote:
Originally Posted by fl4christ
(Translations according to New International Version. Note that translations frequently differ. In the King James Version of the Bible, "Nephilim" is translated as "giants" in the following examples.)
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I apologize for the length of this but it is hard to cut short. Like I said it is just FOOD FOR THOUGHT -
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Why would Cain's decendents be called the "sons of God", seeing they would have been wicked? This is why most assume it has to be the line of righteous Seth.
Also, why use a Hebrew term "bene-ha-elohim" to define them? This phrase is also translated as "divine beings" and is used in
Job 1:6 and 2:1 to depict angelic beings. In
Job 38:7 we read that the "sons of God" have been with GOD at the creation of the world. They also appear in
Psalm 89:7, where GOD is proclaimed incomparable to all other gods, and in
Psalm 29:1 where they sing praises to GOD.
Also, how do extra-biblical sources use the phrase?
Canaanite traditions also use the term "sons of God" (""banu ili" or "banu ili-mi"") in their texts dating back to the 14th century BCE. In the Canaanite pantheon, the chief god is El (meaning "God") and his wife is Asherah. The phrase "sons of God" can then be translated as the children of El. There are also references in Phoenician inscriptions of the 7-8th centuries BCE - Arslan Tash (KAI 27.II) and Karatepe (KAI 26.A.III.19) and in an Ammonite inscription of the 9th century found in Amman, Jordan. This may be an earlier tradition that Biblical phrase pulls from.
If these are not fallen angelic beings who are the angels mentioned in
2 Peter 2:4 and
Jude 1:6, and what sin was so terrible it warranted binding them until the Day of Judgment...while allowing Satan and the rest of his fallen angels to roam free until this very day?
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