Allow me to Think Abstractly for a Moment

[Nperscomp]

Originally Posted by HaShaliach

Just a note or two on the excellent posts made so far.

First, speaking in other languages, languages that are unknown to the speaker but not necessarily unknown to the hearers, is a sign not to the believers, but to the unbelievers. (1 Corinthians 14:22)

Second, speaking in other languages as it was manifested on the day of Pentecost, the language spoken by a believer who received the power of the Holy Ghost must be that of another human tongue, and not a special heavenly or a 'prayer' language. (Acts 2:6-12) That is considered babbling and a 'sign' that might well run a non-believer off. (1 Corinthians 14:23)

Third, the languages spoken were not 'unknown', as frequently translated into our English Bibles. The Greek words for 'unknown' are never associated with speaking with other tongues (languages). The English word, unknown', was added for clarification only, assuming that the languages spoken by the believers were 'unknown' to the speakers but not to those who heard them and/or identify the languages. So, we confuse the speaking in a prayer language with the sign gift of speaking in other human languages and even use the speaking in tongues as a sign to other believers that we are 'praying in the Spirit', while completely disregarding Paul's instruction on who, where, how, and why the "unknown tongues' are to be administered (1 Cor 14).

As a result, we have at least three modern-day apostolic doctrines that clearly differ from the historic apostolic records.

I do like your point of 1 Corinthians 14:22. However, I have a question that may be off subject. When you read further down to 1 cor 14:23, it seems contradictory. So, why would he say that speaking in tongues is a sign for the unbelievers, however, they will think you are crazy? I am trying to understand it and can only get a few outcomes.

1) It is just a SIGN to the unbelievers, they can still think we are crazy if they hear it though. Which leaves me to wonder, what type of sign is he meaning?
2) He is talking about what happened in Acts 2. Some of the witnesses that were unbelievers of Christ thought the people speaking in other languages were drunk.
3) He is contradicting himself.

Ha. I feel like I am missing the big picture on this. What are your thoughts?