Why Acts 2:38?

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by pelathais

He didn't. Can you spot your mistake here?

I don't know what you are talking about, Pel?

You brought up "the sinner's prayer" - and it doesn't confuse me. You're simply confused by your own misapprehension of the thing.

I reworded my statement in the original post. I didn't think the sinner's prayer would confuse you. I want to know why Peter chose the exact words he chose in Acts 2:38 in response to the men who asked "What shall we do?" Peter could have told them to recite the sinner's prayer or something like it but he didn't. Why did he chose to answer them the way he did?

When spoken from the heart, these words represent a sincere prayer of repentance.

I agree but Peter didn't say those words.

Peter himself may have even included exhortations to people to say or emulate similar thoughts and words.

Did Peter use those words anywhere else in books he wrote?

Your attempt to belittle others with your "Borat Approved" method of "praying" is really the issue. What is it about this "sinner's prayer" that makes think it doesn't represent real repentance when it is prayed in faith?

Pel, my post was not about the sinner's prayer. It is truly about me wondering why Peter chose the exact words he did in Acts 2:38 instead of some other words. I used the sinner's prayer as an example of "other words". I have no idea what the "Borat approved method" you are talking about is!

And just what more do you think is needed to save the lost than Jesus Christ Himself?

Jesus' death on the cross is all that is needed to atone for our sins but appropriating the gift (righteousness) is more than just believing that Christ died on the cross for our sins, at least that is what I hear Peter saying to these men on the day of Pentecost who asked what they should do and he told them to repent, be baptized, and receive the Holy Spirit.