Isaiah 3 and jewelry...

[rdp]

Originally Posted by MissBrattified

No, I didn't overlook it. But context is as important to the definition as the, well, definition. Since the meaning of "vile" can mean "dirty, cheap, shabby, morally wicked or vile", then you have to use context to help decide which meaning fits the passage.

Since the verses following verse 2 repeatedly emphasis "poor" vs. "rich", it fits the context to assume that "vile raiment" means "dirty, cheap or shabby" which would be associated with someone poor. Nowhere in the passage does it indicate that the poor man is assumed to be wicked.

That isn't a liberal interpretation, rdp. Just because the word is used differently elsewhere doesn't mean it has to mean that everywhere in the NT. Your interpretation isn't even close to being accurate or logical.



Goodbye? Do you really mean that? I'm thinkin' you'll be back. lol

Oh yea'...wanted to also point out that the Greek term for "poor" in Js. denotes a "beggar" according to Vine's, Strong's, Thayer, etc. So, tell us, MissBrattifield [how fitting]......were the early Christians in the church "beggars" ??

Hmmmm, I thought I read where David said that he's never seen God's children [His seed] "B-E-G-G-I-N-G for bread"! So, yes, both the beggar & man w/ the gold ring were outsiders...just as I said originally. With all thy learning, get understanding!