I posted this in another thread and then quickly deleted it. I decided that it would be HUGE departure from topic and it wouldn't be fair to the thread to throw such a boulder into the intended flow.
In the "Be Ye Perfect" thread Michael The Disciple used the term Yeshua.
To which AtlantaBishop replied...
Quote:
Originally posted by AtlantaBishop
Write it in Hebrew
I think if you are gonna post that the Name of Jesus Christ is Yeshua then your entire post should be in Hebrew. IMHO
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My question...
Now why on earth would you say that?
Names are universal.
When I call the lady at the restaurant up town Juanita should I speak to her in spanish?
Why we use a translation of a translation is a bit of a wonder to me.
Names are generally not translated these days. Apparently they were back then.
But I certainly can't see why one would find themselves incorrect for using a pronunciation that is truer to the original name given.
The name spoken by the angel is nearly (if not exactly) the same as the name of the OT Joshua. Why did they end up sounding so differently? Moses had to stay behind and only Joshua (Y@howshuwa` {yeh-ho-shoo'-ah}) could lead them over into the promised land. Joshua was a type of Christ and shares the same basic name with Christ.
One is now called Joshua (sounding very reminiscent of the original pronunciation although there was no "J" sound back then) and one is now called Jesus (bearing almost no resemblance to the original pronunciation)
And we... the "people of the name" criticize one for trying to utter a pronunciation closest to the name the angel demanded Mary give to the Messiah?
Why would we do that?
Any thoughts?
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