I have always held to the belief that it is extremely dangerous to approach a particular scriptural matter, or phrase, as a
"Schematist," that is to say, one who forms an opinion, or concludes a matter concerning a thing in a specific manner, and then seeks to make everything else that has been written concerning it to conform to their preconceived views, or beliefs.
For instance, should one embrace a belief in the flawed teachings about a
"triune God," then that individual will attempt to make every passage of the Bible which refers to the Godhead in such a way that it lends support to their biased views, all the while failing to recognize the deficiency of their understanding. I fear that this is the manner in which many have attempted to interpret the words of our Lord as found recorded in
Matthew 24.
Should one approach the specific issues raised by the questions which I have tendered here for discussion in such a manner (as some, such as ApostolicTexas and Brother Mike Blume have done), and in so doing have concluded that the things spoken about by Jesus have already taken place, and in like manner apply this same manner of interpreting the contents of the scriptures to the contents of
Exodus 20, then it might also be concluded that the commandments listed there were applicable ONLY to those Israelites who were alive during that period wherein they were given.
Is it proper to conclude that because the LORD God used such words as
"you," within the 10 commandments that we must conclude that such were applicable, or restricted, ONLY to those in attendance at the time they were uttered? Of course not! In fact, it is sheer folly and absurdity to even imagine that such were the case. If one followed this pattern of interpreting the contents of the scriptures, and go through the Bible eliminating all of the places wherein such words are found (based upon the flawed belief that in such instances the things referred to did not apply to this present generation), then that which would remain would become so confusing as to render it void and utterly useless.
Why do some fail to recognize the implications of the words of
Romans 4:17, wherein we are told that because God is eternal, and therefore not restricted to the limitations of time as we mortal humans are, that He is able to
"...calleth those things which be not as though they were"?
Why do some tenaciously embrace the flawed belief that simply because our Lord used words such as
"you, ye, thee," etc., within the record of the response which He uttered in response to the inquiry of the chosen apostles regarding the specific
"sign" (singular), that would be indicative of the immenincy of His
"coming" and
"the end of the age," that such things were to apply ONLY to them and the people who were living during their generation? If such a concludion were indeed true, then I would be inclined to question why it was even necessary that this matter be made an integral part of the Bible, for what relevancy would it bear upon we who are alive today?
IMHO every passage of the sacred Writ must be considered to be applicable to the people of every generation, else it is applicable to none! A strong statement, huh? Indeed! for if such were the case then mankind is in a much greater state of distress than one could even imagine.
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