Can You Explain This Puzzling Paradox?

[Steve Epley]

Originally Posted by mfblume

I believe He did ascend.

Atonement had to be made. He had to present the blood, so to speak. After He resurrected, he was on his way THAT DAY. Lev 16:17 says that the high priest cannot have any man mar or taint him while performing atonement. The passage you cited with Mary was just the same picture.

Notice His change of terms after, which must be explained by an ascension.

John 20:22-23 KJV And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: (23) Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.

He said nothing like that to Mary! Why not? He had not yet ascended.

But he begins to make astounding declarations! Why? He ascended immediately after speaking to Mary.

Sis Alvear is correct, I believe.

I believe Elder Blume is correct as the High Priest he could not be touched while in HIs journey to the Holiest of All to place the blood on the Mercy Seat. Heb.9;12