Can Women Pastor ?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by rdp

Well, you posted in such a way that I can't respond to each point as I'd like. But it seems that you're basing much of your argument above on the supposed culture of the day. This is an unprovable appeal outside of the text, not inherent to the actual text itself.

I posted the way you did to mine. If you want to make it easier here is how we do it. Wrap quotes around each part you want to respond to, then OUTSIDE the quotes put your response. Then when it's my turn to response I just quote you and then do the same.

Im basing my argument on what the text says. In order to UNDERSTAND what the text is saying it's important to understand to who and what Paul is speaking of and why. Nor is it unprovable. It's a matter of history and scripture. Scriptures tell us it was the MEN that learned the word of God. They were.

And, you've given one definition of arguing from silence.

I gave the only definition of making an argument from silence, which i was not doing.

My point is, you're arguing from an unscriptural posture [i.e., "silence"].

No I argued the scriptures. I exegized them to show what they grammatically say and pointed out the text does NOT say she an not pastor. I pointed out it says she is not to have authority over a MAN, not a church or a congregation or both men and women.

Where does the text itself ONCE refer to "synagogues":___________?

Since I never said this text was about synagogues, this is a pointless.

If it's not in the text, then where did you get this Prax?

As explained before it's helpful to understand and interpret scriptures to understand who and what and why the author is writing. The church he is writing to. The church is a judaeo Christian church. Many of his readers are Jews. The first early Jewish converts still met in synagogues. Acts 26:11. So when they left they were coming from that sort of set up.

I Cor. 11 says that a woman long, unshorn hair is given for ["anti"] a veil. Not sure how this relates to the subject of women preachers in the church [which IS the overriding theme of our discussion, by the way]. And, I still don't see how Bauer's affects the meaning anyway. The application is the same.

I don't understand what you mean here by this verse and how it applies, anyways the meaning is talking about lording it over someone. BDAG shows this is not the simple "authority of a pastor". It's speaking of someone trying to dominate

RWP:The word authenteō is now cleared up by Kretschmer (Glotta, 1912, pp. 289ff.) and by Moulton and Milligan’s Vocabulary. See also Nageli, Der Wortschatz des Apostels Paulus and Deissmann, Light, etc., pp. 88f. Autodikeō was the literary word for playing the master while authenteō was the vernacular term. It comes from auṫhentes, a self-doer, a master, autocrat. It occurs in the papyri (substantive authentēs, master, verb authenteō, to domineer, adjective authentikos, authoritative, "authentic"). Modern Greek has aphentes = Effendi = "Mark."

But, let's take a look at some corroborative evidence: We have clear Scripture forbidding women from positions of authority over men, from teaching/preaching [which are used synonymously in the Bible, much like "God" & "Father"] in the church, absolutely NO examples of the practice ANYWHERE in the entire Bible, the term for elders is ALWAYS in the masculine, NEVER in the feminine, etc. ad nauseum.

You said let's take a look at some cooroborative evidence...but you didn't offer any to look at.

Teaching and preaching are not synoymous. Preaching means to proclaim. Teaching means to educate others on a subject.

The term Elders being in the masculine is indeed an ad nauseum argument. As I said church is feminine. Believers is masculine...does that mean females can't be believers?

Seriously, where's the Scriptural evidence in favor of women preachers in the church:____________?

Where is the evidence against a woman preacher?

Preacher is a harold of divine truth. Doesn't a prophet harold divine truth? There are women prophets in the NT right?